The Six Sigma

Globalization coupled with round the clock access to information, products and services have transformed the manner in which business are conducted. The highly competitive environment of the present day does not allow any scope for error to creep in. Customers must have to be kept always delighted and companies have to persistently work out novel ways to exceed the expectations of the customers. Due to these reasons, Six Sigma came to be part of the culture of eminent companies. Six Sigma is an extremely structured process that assists companies in focusing on the development and delivery of product and services that are close to perfect. Sigma is a statistical term that calibrates the degree a particular process deviates from perfection. The core concept behind Six Sigma remains that in case it is possible to calculate the number of flaws or defects one has in a given process, it is possible to thoroughly know the manner in which to remove them and attain the level of ‘zero defect' as far as practicable. Adoption of Six Sigma has transformed the basic structure of General Electric — GE and has become the work culture in everything one does and every product designed. (Making customers feel Six Sigma) In order to attain Six Sigma quality, a process should not exceed 3.4 defects per million opportunities. An ‘opportunity' stands for a chance for noncompliance, or not fulfilling the needed stipulations. This implies that businesses have to be close to ‘zero-defect' in implementing the core processes. Six Sigma constitutes a vision which companies endeavor towards and a philosophy that is a constituent of business culture of companies. In its core, Six Sigma centers on a few important concepts. These are (i) Critical to quality: Attributes are vital to the customer. (ii) Defects: Unsuccessful in delivering what the customer desires. (iii) Process capability: What process it is able to deliver. (iv) Variation: The things that the customer witnesses and feels (v) Stable operations: Making sure consistent, predictable processes so as to improve what the customer is able to see and feel. (vi) Design for Six Sigma: Designing to fulfill the requirements of the customer and process capability. One of the most important aspects which companies fail to recognize is that assessment from the company level is based on average or averages that are based on mean of the latest results. However, customers do not judge companies on averages, they perceive the variance in every transactions and every product that is shipped. The main idea of Six Sigma remains primarily in reducing process variation and thereafter on improving the capability of processes. (Key concepts of Six Sigma) A question that is usually put is the difference between Six Sigma and TQM. The tools are fundamentally identical based on the level of TQM sophistication. In case Six Sigma is applied exclusively at the project stages to eliminate flaws, it constitutes a segmental improvement approach with some structure and discipline. This can be extremely precious, however misses much of the real importance of Six Sigma and the crucial differences between TQM and Six Sigma. It is important that the real values of Six Sigma begins to exhibit when it is integrated with the strategic plan of the organization assisting to execute that plan with a concentration on paying the customers. (Differences and similarities between Six Sigma and TQM, total quality management) Various Methodologies of Six Sigma: (i) The DMAIC Model: Six Sigma originated in Motorola's quality enhancement initiatives in the later part of 1980s. During the 1990s, Six Sigma attained popularity due to the success of General Electric and Honeywell implementing Six Sigma. Whereas the name Six Sigma has assumed wider implications, the basic idea of Six Sigma statistically speaking is to enhance the processes in such a manner that at the minimum six standard deviations between the worst case specification limit and the mean of process variation is present. In common meaning it implies that the process is essentially free from flaws. The apparatus used in Six Sigma are the identical tools applied by the Quality Improvement Tools in the 1970s and the initial part of 1980s. Of course it has appealing tags attached to it like ‘Black Belt', however its true value lies in the methodical approach to development. (Six Sigma: Total Quality Engineering) The DMAIC acronym stands for Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control. Important product process performance variables are measured, analyzed, improved and controlled through the use of statistical methods. The simple â€Å"statistical† tools which gained popularity in the Total Quality reign are strengthened with the Design of Experiments — DOE and higher sophisticated Statistical Process Control techniques. The DMAIC process is an edition of the PDCA — Plan-Do-Check-Act which a lot of people find helpful. Undoubtedly, Six Sigma can be helpful for organization to improve processes. The most optimum approach is to align the Six Sigma projects with the strategic business plan of the organization. (Six Sigma: Total Quality Engineering) (ii) The DMADV Model: This model is applied to build new product or process designs in such a manner that it outcomes in an increasingly expected, established and ‘zero-defect' performance. Five phases are present that consists of Define, Measure, Analyze, Design and Verify. Under ‘Define', goals are formally defined of the design activity, which are in keeping with the demand of the customer and the enterprise strategy. ‘Measure' identifies the capabilities of the product, capability of the production process, assessment of risk etc. ‘Analyze' develops the design alternatives, building of high-level design and assess design capability to choose the best design. ‘Design' develops detail design, design optimization of design and plan for design confirmation. This phase might need simulations.' ‘Verify' validates the design, establishes pilot runs and executes the production process and handover to the process owners. This phase might also need simulations. (Six Sigma: Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia) Usefulness of Six Sigma in the Organizational Strategic Planning Processes: Six Sigma characterizes a distinct roadmap in the achievement to Total Quality. (i) Leadership Commitment: The top management not just initiates the deployment of Six Sigma; it also contributes actively in the entire deployment cycle. Six Sigma starts by giving the senior leadership with the training in the principles and instrument requires in order to direct the development of a management infrastructure to support Six Sigma. This entails lowering the levels of hierarchy of the organization and elimination of procedural hurdles to experimentation and change. (ii) Customer focus: Systems are built for setting up close communications with â€Å"external customers' — i.e. direct customers, the suppliers, end-users, law making agencies and with internal customers — i.e. employees. Right from the upstream suppliers till the final end-users, Six Sigma removes the scope for flaws. (iii) Strategic Deployment: Under the aegis of Six Sigma, it aims at a small number of high-financial leveraged items. It concentrates the company's resources: correct support, correct people, correct tools and correct proposals on finding and enhancing the performance metrics which link to bottom-line success. (iv) Disciplined framework: The projects under Six Sigma are implemented through the use of Measure, Analyze, and Improve as well as Control disciplined roadmap. It is this MAIC structured approach which establishes a distinct procedure to help in the internal communication. Apart from this, from a business viewpoint, Six Sigma is also a structure for continuous business improvement. (v) Education and Training: Six Sigma considers that right dedication is propelled by correct understanding. Since it is fact-based methodology, it deeply makes use of quality and statistical tools to convert a practical problem to a practical solution. Therefore a top-to-bottom training is undertaken according to the Six Sigma philosophy and system improvement methods for every level. (Total Quality through Six Sigma) To conclude, the approach and deployment of Six Sigma renders it distinguishable from other quality endeavors. Six Sigma methods uses the statistical tools within a structured method for benefiting the knowledge necessary to attain better, speedier and less costly products and services compared to what the rivals are offering. The continuous, structured application of the master strategy repeatedly in projects, where the projects are chosen based on important business objective propels the return on investment to the bottom-line with the outcome that it leads to remarkable profits. Besides, prompted by the improvement to the bottom-line, the apex management will be repeatedly be dedicated to this approach, the work culture will be repeatedly cultivated, the customer will certainly be satisfied ones and this will ultimately lead to Total Quality.

Consumer Buying Behavior †Marketing to teenagers Essay

Topic: Consumer Buying Behavior – Marketing to teenagers Article Summary: This article states that although only two percent of teenagers are smokers; fifty percent of tobacco companies marketing monies go to targeting teenagers. The author feels that the big tobacco companies target teenagers to help make up for those who ultimately die from tobacco related illnesses or realize on later in life that they need to stop smoking. It goes on to say that for every one person who dies from tobacco-related causes, two new smokers under the age of twenty-six start the habit. Although the Joe Camel cartoon advertising has since been removed, when that particular character was created the sales of Camel increased thirty-four percent in kids showing that campaign had an impact on who they were targeting and who began to purchase their product. The author goes on to say how impressionable teenagers and children are, as opposed to adults, and how stopping the tobacco use is not easy to do. Once someone starts it is a hard habit to break. Many of those who start smoking at an early age become addicted to the product before they are even of legal age to purchase the product. Even the warnings on the boxes are not enough to keep the young consumers from purchasing the product. Class Application: Cigarette companies need to market to the proper consumer market. A consumer market is purchasers and household members who intend to consume or benefit from the purchased product. By Camel advertising in  magazines, using â€Å"fun† cartoon characters, and also making tobacco use look cool, they are not targeting the proper market. Being sure to market cigarettes to those who are legally allowed to use the product is a must. They can still use a differentiated targeting strategy and market to those in different demographics, but they need to be sure to leave out those who are not legal to use the product. Cigarette companies should be using demographic segmentation variables to come up with ad campaigns geared towards the proper segments. With cigarettes, the companies have to focus on age since there is a legal age for smoking. Also, since cigarettes have been proven to be unhealthy and cause of cancer, among other things, they are not something that sho uld be advertised to children or teenagers; no matter what.

Bariatric Surgery

Bariatric Surgery Indication: No studies evaluate the commonly used indications for bariatric surgery. Consensus guidelines suggest that the surgical treatment of obesity should be reserved for patients with a body-mass index (BMI) >40 kg/m(2) or with BMI >35 kg/m(2) and 1 or more significant co morbid conditions, when less invasive methods of weight loss have failed and the patient is at high risk for obesity-associated morbidity and mortality (strength of recommendation: C, based on consensus guidelines). Types:There are two basic types of weight loss surgery — restrictive surgeries and malabsorptive/restrictive surgeries. They help with weight loss in different ways. Restrictive surgeries:  work by physically restricting the size of the stomach and slowing down digestion. A normal stomach can hold about 3 pints of food. After surgery, the stomach may at first hold as little as an ounce, although later that could stretch to 2 or 3 ounces. The smaller the stomach, the less you can eat. The less you eat the more weight you lose. Malabsorptive/restrictive surgeries:  are more invasive surgeries that work by changing how you take in food.In addition to restricting the size of the stomach, these surgeries physically remove or bypass parts of your digestive tract, which makes it harder for your body to absorb calories. Purely malabsorptive surgeries — also called intestinal bypasses — are no longer done because of the side effects. Specific Types of Weight Loss Surgery There are many different surgical procedures for weight loss, and each has several variations. Adjustable Gastric Banding Gastric banding is among the least invasive weight loss treatments.This surgery uses an inflatable band to squeeze the stomach into two sections: a smaller upper pouch and a larger lower section. The two sections are still connected; it's just the channel between them is very small, which slows down the emptying of the upper pouch. Gastric banding physical ly restricts the amount of food you can take in at a meal. Most people can only eat a ? to 1 cup of food before feeling too full or sick. The food also needs to be soft or well-chewed. There are several brands of adjustable gastric bands available. They include LAP-BAND and REALIZE. Pros.The advantage to gastric banding is that it's simpler to do and safer than gastric bypass and other operations. It's routinely done as minimally invasive surgery, using small incisions, special instruments, and a tiny camera called a laparoscope. Recovery is usually faster. You can also have it reversed by surgically removing the band. Because the band is connected to an opening just beneath the skin in the abdomen, it can be easily loosened or tightened in the doctor's office. To tighten the band and further restrict the stomach size, more saline solution is injected into the band.To loosen it, the liquid is removed with a needle. The Cons. People who get gastric banding often have less dramatic we ight loss than those who get more invasive surgeries. They may also be more likely to regain some of the weight over the years. The Risks. The most common side effect of gastric banding is vomiting, a result of eating too much too quickly. Complications with the band aren't uncommon. It might slip out of place, or become too loose, or leak. Sometimes, further surgeries are necessary. As with any surgery, infection is always a risk. Although unlikely, some complications can be life-threatening.Sleeve Gastrectomy This is another form of restrictive weight loss surgery. In the operation, which is usually done with a laparoscope, about 75% of the stomach is removed. What remains of the stomach is a narrow tube or sleeve, which connects to the intestines. Sometimes, a sleeve gastrectomy is a first step in a sequence of weight loss surgeries. It can be followed up by gastric bypass or biliopancreatic diversion, if more weight loss is needed. However, in other cases, it might be the only s urgery you need. The Pros. For people who are very obese or sick, standard gastric bypass or biliopancreatic diversion may be too risky.A sleeve gastrectomy is a simpler operation that allows them a lower-risk way to lose weight. If needed, once they've lost weight and their health has improved — usually after 12 months to 18 months — they can go on to have a second surgery, such as gastric bypass. In people with high BMIs, sleeve gastrectomies result in an average weight loss of greater than 50% of excess weight. Because the intestines aren't affected, a sleeve gastrectomy doesn't affect the absorption of food, so nutritional deficiencies are not a problem. The Cons. Unlike gastric banding procedures, a sleeve gastrectomy is irreversible.Most importantly, since it's relatively new, the long-term benefits and risks are still being evaluated. The Risks. Typical surgical risks include infection, leaking of the sleeve, and blood clots. Gastric Bypass Surgery (Roux-en-Y Ga stric Bypass) Gastric bypass is the most common type of weight loss surgery. It combines both restrictive and malabsorptive approaches. It can be done as either a minimally invasive or open surgery. In the operation, the surgeon divides the stomach into two parts, sealing off the upper section from the lower. The surgeon then connects the upper stomach directly to the lower section of the small intestine.Essentially, the surgeon is creating a shortcut for the food, bypassing a section of the stomach and the small intestine. Skipping these parts of the digestive tract means that fewer calories get absorbed into the body. The Pros. Weight loss tends to be swift and dramatic. About 50% of it happens in the first six months. It may continue for up to two years after the operation. Because of the rapid weight loss, health conditions affected by obesity – such as diabetes, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, arthritis, sleep apnea, heartburn, and other conditions — often improve quickly.You'll probably also feel a dramatic improvement in your quality of life. Gastric bypass also has good long-term results; studies have found that many people keep most of the weight off for 10 years or longer. The Cons. By design, surgeries like this impair the body's ability to absorb food. While that can cause rapid weight loss, it also puts you at risk of serious nutritional deficiencies. The loss of calcium and iron could lead to osteoporosis and anemia. You'll have to be very careful with your diet — and take supplements — for the rest of your life.Another risk of gastric bypass is dumping syndrome, in which food is â€Å"dumped† from the stomach into the intestines too quickly, before it's been properly digested. About 85% of people who get a gastric bypass have some dumping. Symptoms include nausea, bloating, pain, sweating, weakness, and diarrhea. Dumping is often triggered by sugary or high-carbohydrate foods, and adjusting the diet help s. However, some experts actually see dumping syndrome as beneficial, in that it encourages people to avoid foods that could lead to weight gain. Unlike adjustable gastric banding, gastric bypass is generally considered irreversible.It has been reversed in rare cases. Therefore, getting this surgery means that you're permanently changing how your body digests food. The Risks. Because these weight loss surgeries are more complicated, the risks are higher. The risk of death from these procedures is low — about 1% — but they are more dangerous than gastric banding. Infection and blood clots are risks, as they are with most surgeries. Gastric bypass also increases the risk of hernias, which can develop later and may need further surgery to fix. Also, a side effect of rapid weight loss can be the formation of gallstones.Biliopancreatic Diversion This is essentially a more drastic version of a gastric bypass, in which part of the stomach — as much as 70% — is r emoved, and even more of the small intestine is bypassed. A somewhat less extreme version of this weight loss surgery is called biliopancreatic diversion with a duodenal switch or â€Å"the duodenal switch. † While still more involved than a gastric bypass, this procedure removes less of the stomach and bypasses less of the small intestine. It also reduces the risk of dumping syndrome, malnutrition, and ulcers, which are more common with a standard biliopancreatic diversion.The Pros. Biliopancreatic diversion can result in even greater and faster weight loss than a gastric bypass. Studies show an average long-term loss of 70% to 80% of excess weight. Although much of the stomach is removed, the remainder is still larger than the pouches formed during gastric bypass or banding procedures. So you may actually be able to eat larger meals with this surgery than with others. The Cons. Biliopancreatic diversion is less common than gastric bypass. One of the reasons is that the risk of nutritional deficiencies is much more serious.It also poses many of the same risks as gastric bypass, including dumping syndrome. However, the duodenal switch may lower some of these risks. The Risks. This is one of the most complicated and high-risk weight loss surgeries. According to National Institutes of Health, the risk of death from the duodenal switch ranges between 2. 5% and 5%. As with gastric bypass, this surgery poses a fairly high risk of hernia, which will need further surgery to correct. However, this risk is lower when the procedure is done laparoscopically. Reference: News release Allegran.ACP Medicine: â€Å"Endocrinology Chapter X: Obesity. † American Society for Bariatric Surgery web site: â€Å"Brief History and Summary of Bariatric Surgery. † American Society for Metabolic and Bariatric Surgery web site: â€Å"Bariatric Surgery: Postoperative Concerns. † National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive Kidney Diseases: â€Å"Gastrointestina l Surgery for Severe Obesity. † Obesity Action Coalition web site: â€Å"Gastrointestinal Surgery (Bariatric Surgery),† Laparoscopic Sleeve Gastrectomy. † Reviewed by Melinda Ratini, DO, MS on May 29, 2012  © 2012 WebMD, LLC. All rights reserved.

Reducing Injuries in the Workplace Dissertation

Reducing Injuries in the Workplace - Dissertation Example ignificant increase in the implementation of safety incentive programmes, which have been ineffective many times since many employees are used to underreporting as a way of meeting safety goals. In this research study it was found that there is a clear divergence of views between employees and managers of the company under scrutiny in connection to safety measures in the workplace. There is a need of implementing safety training on a regular basis in order to make employees aware of the importance of creating a safe environment at work. This dissertation was grounded on secondary data from a literature review and primary data collected through an employee queestionnaire, a manager questionnaire, and safety reports and documentaton. CHAPTER I INTRODUCTION 1.1.- Statement of the Problem. The issue of occupational safety has been a matter of concern for the Health and Safety Authority (HSA), the Health and Safety Executive (HSE), the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and companies in general. HSA, HSE and OSHA require compliance with their regulations and many companies have established safety incentive programmes. The major problem has been related with underreporting in order to meet workplace safety goals. In this dissertation occupational safety is studied emphasising the need for reducing injuries, illnesses, and accidents in the workplace as well as the need of the companies to comply with safety regulations as established by HSA, HSE, and OSHA. 1.2.- Aim and Objectives. The aim of this research study is to investigate the issue of occupational safety and the reduction of injuries, illnesses and accidents in the workplace. To reach this aim, the following objectives are identified: -To critically review relevant literature about...Occupational safety is a very important issue that must be taken into account for all the companies in general in order to reduce the level of injuries, illnesses, and accidents in the workplace. At the same time it is necessary for companies in general to comply with the safety protocols established by HSA, HSE, and OSHA. Workplace safety cannot be underestimated, and a great deal of attention has to be given to this issue to improve working conditions for all of the employees in any company. 1.4.- Scope of the Dissertation. This research study is based on secondary data from the Literature Review and primary data from two sets of questionnaires and the analysis of safety reports of a given company. Injuries and accidents are studied with greater detail than illnesses in the workplace. Emphasis is made on the topic of safety incentive programmes and the common issue of underreporting in order to meet workplace safety goals. This research is limited to the study of occupational safety in one specific company and through a limited time frame. 1.5.- Dissertation Structure. This dissertation is structured as follows: The Abstract summarises the findings. The Introduction is divided in five sections: Statement of the Problem, Aim and Objectives, Relevance of the Dissertation, Scope of the Dissertation, and Dissertatrion Structure. The Literature Review is divided in seveb sections: Introduction. The Problem of Workplace Injuries, Injuries and their Causes, The Role of HSA OSHA, and HSE.

Movie analysis Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1250 words

Movie analysis - Essay Example In addressing family conflicts, the movie goes a step further by dealing with conflict of the family as a whole, as opposed to a conflict between an individual and his or her family as most Hollywood movies do (Dilley, 2007). The Wedding banquet promotes its audience to empathize not only with individual characters, but with the entire Chinese family that has been affected with the American culture that is quickly becoming global. The movie represents a lot of views touching on identities of not only gay Chinese men, but also issues affecting Asian Americans and Chinese women in the contemporary society. This movie, as well as most of Ang Lee’s movies is aimed at criticizing several stereotypes in the Chinese and Asian culture such as views on gay relationships. The Wedding banquet, often categorized as a comedy/drama portrays a family conflict in an Asian society in a very sensitive and tender way with a lot of humor incorporated in the story to help illustrate the main issue s better (Dilley, 2007). The movie addresses generational, cultural and sexual conflicts that young Asian men and women experience in the contemporary society. The movie features Mr. ... He also hides his relationship with Simon, by Simon posing as his landlord and roommate. At the wedding banquet, Wai Tung and Wei Wei make love, and she conceives a child, which upsets Simon. Wai Tung’s parents stay a bit longer than expected, and they soon find out that their son is in a relationship with Simon. Wai Tung, Simon and Wei Wei decide to live together and raise the child. Toward the end of the 29th century and the beginning of the 21st century, most a lot of movies produced focused on family issues and relationships and how they are perceived in the Chinese culture (Dilley, 2007). These new movies aimed at reinventing the way the Chinese culture views relationships and the family as a whole. The movies examined several possibilities of altering the traditional understanding of family and relationships so as to accommodate the modern views mostly upheld by the young generation. These movies called for a complete change in the family set up affecting all kinship tie s and relationships (Dilley, 2007). The wedding Banquet is one of these critically acclaimed movies that criticize the Chinese and Asian culture in general and their traditional understanding of the family. The Chinese family, like most Asian families, is patriarchal in nature. The father commands a lot of respect in the family, and he holds the final word on most family issues. Children are brought up in a family and are expected to start their own families when they get older so as to continue the family lineage. Children form a very important part of an Asian family. Young men and women are expected to marry members of the opposite sex so as to

The Canadian Fur Trade Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 3000 words

The Canadian Fur Trade - Essay Example Westward and northward exploration in what is now Canada was inextricably linked with the twin desiderata of a profitable fur trade and an easy passage through North America to the Pacific and thus to the rich trade of the Orient. Voyaging into the Hudson Bay region, British explorers failed to locate the easy passage to the South Sea but did discover an abundant fur resource. Similarly, the French, from their colonial base of New France in the St. Lawrence Valley, searched westward for a passage to China and discovered instead a potential fur trade that would dominate the economy of their North American colony. Just before the establishment of the Hudson's Bay Company by the British in 1670, the geographical information obtained by explorers searching for the Pacific was joined with economic data on the fur trade. "Two Frenchmen [Pierre Radisson and Sieur de Groseilliers] who have lived long in Canada & have been up in ye great lakes that lye in the midst of that part of America" informed English merchants that they had discovered a plentiful fur resource in the Great Lakes region; they added, "There is great hope of finding some passage through those Lakes into the South Sea."

Evaluating a Website of Mayo Clinic for Credibility Coursework

Evaluating a Website of Mayo Clinic for Credibility - Coursework Example Further, it is known for its collaborative strategy by either lending its research department to other specialists from different countries. Outside of the research and collaboration with other institutions, Mayo Clinic also allots 40 percent of its own resources to research instead of medical practice as customary to other hospitals. This openness is motivated by the institution’s commitment to prioritize patients’ welfare and medical advancement. Its efficiency and reputation are carried on to its website. All of its contents are written by resident specialists or guest specialists that are certified to practice their profession. However, even with the personal credentials, content contributors refer to certified research whenever possible. Site Objectives The site serves two purposes. First, it is a business platform as it allows patients and other possible partners to look for specialists, discover studies and researchers being pursued by mayo clinic. It also aims t o educate the mass market by publishing, through its newsroom, articles by affiliate doctors and specialists. It also links to different researchers that are internationally accepted. Topics cover anything from cancer research progress to diet and nutrition. The site has four major target markets: (1) Patients, (2) Doctors, (3) Medical Practitioners, and (4) Academe and researchers. Contents for each section are written by employees/practitioners of Mayo Clinic and approved by the same people who run the clinic. Each market segment is allotted their own section which makes navigation easier and efficient. Content Providers Mayo Clinic contents come from different doctors, research institutions, and other kinds of a medical practitioner. Published articles range from simple diet tips to maximize the health benefits of different food groups to breakthrough genetic research. Each article is written by authorities in the field. Most often, medical related articles are authored by reside nt doctors. Their contents are also continued, duplicated or expounded on Mayo Clinic’s monthly newsletter providing a more reliable and qualified reference. They also publish simplified versions of new researchers and finding. Quality of Contents Opinions and Substantiations Mayo Clinic articles are always, at the very least, written by certified doctors or practitioners in various medical fields. The author is always someone considered qualified to talk about the subject at hand. The contents are written with the same efficiency and dignity as its medical practice. Each recommendation is properly supported and balanced. The voice and opinion of the authors, however, are not compromised. Like many disciplines, medical recommendations are also dependent on a doctor’s opinion. For example, two doctors might differ on what diet to recommend a certain patient. Some doctors recommend raw food diet while others believe a balance of fiber and protein is better. Occurrences l ike this happen on the site and it is expected. Like any professionally written articles, all claims are properly substantiated. Maintenance Mayo Clinic is one of the well-maintained websites. Links work and dated information are not taken down but it has a clear tag that indicates it is an old information but is kept online as a reference.

International business strategy Case Study Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1000 words

International business strategy - Case Study Example UK-based multinational telecommunications company with headquarters in London, is the world’s second largest mobile telecommunication organization in terms of subscribers and recent revenues. It owns and operates networks in over 20 countries as well as has operations through partner networks in over 40 countries. As part of its international strategy, Vodafone expanded its resources through mergers, acquisitions, and joint ventures. When viewed from contrary perspective, Vodafone started building its resources, particularly its physical and technological resources in the form of network infrastructure, through the above-mentioned three modes and thereby strengthened its international strategy further. â€Å"By 2013, it had established a significant presence in Europe, the Middle East, Asia Pacific and the USA through mergers and acquisitions, international joint ventures, and other forms of foreign direct investment† (Case Study). As Vodafone mainly targeted successful or potential local players for acquisition, mergers, and JVs, during their foreign entries, they are able to garner optimal resources. For example, during its entry into India, Vodafone acquired Hutchinson Essar for a sizable sum and that led to the garnering of strong existing physical and technological resources, which it further optimized. The other key technological resource gained by Vodafone as part of its international strategy is wireless spectrums through auctions, which has increased its competitive advantage further. Normally, governments of various countries would auction 2G, 3G, and even 4G spectrums to telecommunication companies through a competitive bidding process thereby earning good revenue. In that direction, Vodafone has won many auctions in many countries and has got hold of sizable spectrums. After Vodafone has gained these spectrum allocations, they are able to introduce or provide more features to its customers in its foreign operations and that will natura lly lead to its

Specific advancement in the arts and technology Essay

Specific advancement in the arts and technology - Essay Example This thesis discusses the Digital Photography, a breakthrough technology of over three decades ago, as a specific advancement in the arts and technology. The thesis statement is â€Å"The advent of digital photography has revolutionized the field of arts because it has accelerated and simplified the technology of photography by drastically decreasing the time and expenses associated to take photographs, offering advanced tools of processing and enabling persons with little training and no experience to create beautiful photographs†. Bellis (2011a) has summarized the background of the time period leading to the invention of digital photography. Though the basic principles of optics and camera were known to Chinese and Greek philosophers as early as during the 5th-4th centuries B.C., the discovery that white light was composed of seven different colors was made only in the 17th century by Issac Newton. In 1727, Johann Heinrich Schulze found out that sunlight acted upon silver nitrate to produce dark metallic silver. In 1814, Joseph Niepce obtained the first ever photographic image with camera obscura. Louis Daguerre developed a convenient and effective method of photography in 1837 called daguerreotype, which he introduced to the public in 1839 at Paris (Bellis,2011b). In 1841,William Henry Talbot invented the negative-positive photo making process capable of producing multiple copies. Frederick Scott Archer developed the Collodion process in 1851 requiring only a few seconds light exposure. In 1871 Richard Leach Maddox developed the gelatin dry plate silver bromide process. In 1884 George Eastman invented flexible paper-based photographic film and in 1888 he patented the Kodak roll-film camera. In 1898 Reverend Hannibal Goodwin patented the celluloid photographic film. The first commercially mass produced camera named Brownie was marketed in 1900. In 1913-14 the first 35mm still camera was developed which was followed by the

Ethics Assignment Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1500 words

Ethics - Assignment Example The sense of and compliance with the principles of ethics is what makes man superior to all living creatures. The most convincing ethical system is utilitarianism. It is â€Å"probably the basic moral philosophy of most nonreligious humanists today’’ (Harris, 2002, p. 119). Utilitarianism suggests that in any situation, one should adopt that course of action that maximizes the utility for all of the sentient beings. An action that is generally considered objectionable in normal circumstances might be the right course of action in a particular situation because the context and situation might be equally different and unique. One needs to see what is the requirement of a given situation and in what potential ways can the maximum utility of a decision can be achieved in a positive way. Nevertheless, there is a certain level of subjectivity in this process that is difficult to avoid. This involves concerns about whether one should maximize the average, or the sum of the to tal utility. In addition to that, the utility of future beings also needs to be taken into account. In any case, the only factor that one should care about is maximizing the utility. The fundamental principles of ethics are maintenance of discipline and decorum and spread of mental as well as physical well-being. According to web.mnstate.edu (2012), there are four fundamental principles of ethics, namely the principle of beneficence, respect for autonomy, nonmalefience, and justice. The principle of beneficence obliges us to take such measures that make our actions good. This means that we should make effort to prevent others from harm. Nevertheless, adoption of this principle often involves us into a conflict with the respect of others’ autonomy. We are ethically obliged to have reverence for others’ autonomy so that their decisions regarding their lives are respected. It is the fundamental principle of human dignity. The principle of respect for autonomy deters us fr om interfering in the competent adults’ decisions and assigns us the responsibility of empowering others. The principle of nonmalefience instructs us not to harm others. In cases where it is not possible to avoid the harm altogether, we are ethically obliged to minimize the harm. Our actions should be such that more good is produced in their consequence than harm. The principle of justice requires us to give others what they deserve. Therefore, we need to consider all people equal and should deal with them impartially. The good life is that in which one never deters from getting one’s right and at the same time, always grants others their rights. An ethically good life is indeed a life that is functionally good (McKinnon, 1999, p. 69). In this world, everybody is interconnected. We have certain obligations toward others and others also have some obligations toward us similarly. To live a good life, we should neither compromise upon our own rights nor deny others their rights. If we compromise upon our own rights but grant others their rights, we essentially become selfless. Selflessness is just as harmful, if not more, for the quality of life as selfishness is. If we always get our rights

Hypothetical population, Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 750 words

Hypothetical population, - Essay Example It must be kept in mind that such populations do not practically occur in nature because over a period of time, evolutionary factors affect the population in some way or the other. In the equation given above represents the frequency of the homozygous dominants, gives the frequency of homozygous recessive while 2pq represents the frequency of the heterozygotes. The frequency of the dominant and the recessive alleles may be calculated by square-rooting the homozygous dominant and recessive genotype frequencies. Therefore gives the dominant allelic frequency while gives the recessive allelic frequency. However, the equation hold true for populations the comply with Hardy-Weinberg assumptions which means that in populations whose gene pool is disturbed by factors such as gene flow, genetic drift, mutations and in selectively bred populations, the equation will not be enough for proper estimation. In the given problem, it has been stated that 25 out of every 100 children are born with attached earlobes. We already know that attached earlobe phenotype is an expression of recessive homozygous genotype. Assuming that all assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are met, we may apply the law to estimate allelic and genotypic frequencies of the given population. Let us assume that UU is the dominant homozygous gene, Ua is the heterozygous genotype while uu is the homozygous recessive gene. As given in the problem, uu causes attached earlobe phenotype while both UU and Uu cause unattached earlobes. In order to estimate the dominant and the recessive frequencies of the alleles we utilize Hardy Weinberg’s equation directly since we do not know the exact number of heterozygotes. To estimate allelic frequency of attached earlobes: Using the values of the frequencies of both the dominant and the recessive alleles that we obtained we can also calculate the frequency of the heterozygous genotype since the exact

Eddie and Beatrice Essay Example for Free

Eddie and Beatrice Essay Of all the characters in the play, Marco is the one most responsible for the death of Eddie Carbone Do you agree? Consider all the characters in the play who are likely to be involved. Form your own conclusion from evidence, and use six characters minimum. I am going to write an essay about who I think is the most responsible for Eddie Carbones death. I will also say whether I think Marco is the most responsible. I will talk about the different characters, and say what I think makes them responsible/not responsible for his death. Then I will give my conclusion as to whom I think is the most responsible. The characters that I am going to use for my essay are Marco, Eddie, Rodolfo, Alfieri, Catherine and Beatrice and I will write about them in that order. In the beginning Marco was a very nice man. He did not want to put Eddie and Beatrice out, and was always very friendly with them. There was never much conflict between himself and Eddie, they would talk about his family and how he was going to help his children get better. This is illustrated when Beatrice asks Marco if his wife is getting the money ok, and he replies Oh, yes. She bought medicine for my boy. Also when they are talking about money in the beginning, Marco is very eager to send his wife as much money as he can, as soon as possible. He says Because I could send them a little more if I stay here and, I want to send right away maybe twenty dollars. This shows Marco is a very caring man, and wants the best for his wife and children. Then, Eddie started to become jealous of Rodolfo and when they were talking about Marcos family it lead to respecting women, and it was like Eddie was trying to warn Rodolfo away from Catherine. Eddie starts to become very jealous and angry now, and says to Rodolfo, It aint so free here either Rodolfo, like you think Then Rodolfo tells him he does respect her and Eddie starts to talk about just taking away girls. Eddie says I know, but in your town you wouldnt just drag off some girl without permission, I mean (he turns) you know what I mean Marco? Marco replies (cautiously) yes. It was after this that things started to change between them. Eddie tried to teach Rodolfo how to box, but ended up hitting him too hard. Marco then showed Eddie that he could be strong too, by testing his strength: He kneels, grasps and with strain slowly raises the chair higher and higher. Eddies grin vanishes as he absorbs his look. Eddie couldnt lift the chair but Marco could, this was showing Eddie that he (Marco) could be twice as strong as him, and was like saying I can be strong too, Im warning you I also think this was like telling Eddie that, if he wanted to fight Rodolfo, then he would have to fight him as well. I dont think Marco is exactly to blame for Eddies death, because Eddie should have been warned and left it at that. Instead he went to the immigration service. Marco was right to be furious at Eddie who wouldnt be? He was trying to help his family to get better, and wanted them to have a better life, and now all this would go to waste. Then when Eddie brought the knife out and was about to use it on Marco I think it was an act of self-defence when Marco turned the knife around. Eddie went down with the blow of Marco punching him on the neck (because he lunged for him), and then just as Marco is about to stomp on him he brings out the knife. Eddie lunges with the knife. Marco grabs his arm, turning the blade inward and pressing it home Eddie was over-protective towards Catherine right from the start. When she wanted to go ahead with the job her principle had told her to try for he tried to stop her from going a sign that he didnt want her to leave, in case she liked it and wanted to start her own life. Eddie tells Catherine she is walking wavy This shows Eddies concern extends to the way Catherine walks. When Marco and Rodolfo came to stay, things just went from bad to worse. Eddie started being suspicious of Catherine and Rodolfo all the time, and would have a go at Rodolfo. Eddie says I know, but you wouldnt just drag off some girl without permission Eddie is accusing Rodolfo of dragging Catherine off without his permission, and saying he has no respect in for women in doing this. I think Eddie is to blame for his own death, because if he hadnt been so over-protective and jealous none of this would have happened. Another time Louis and Mike ask Eddie if he would like to go bowling with them, but he says no, hes expected at home.

Communication With Colleagues At Work English Language Essay

Communication With Colleagues At Work English Language Essay Every day at work we have to communicate with colleagues.  Well, if people are nice, then communication has friendly character.  Unfortunately, this it is not always true.  Sometimes, one man can create tensions to the whole team, not only spoil the mood, but also to bring up such unpleasant consequences, such as dismissal.  But such people are sometimes enough to learn to communicate properly, and most of the problems will disappear by themselves. The first unpleasant character is a gossip.  As a rule, these people exude friendliness that initially influences positioning.  But if you submit to this provocation, and tell us about something personal, no later than tomorrow, all your secrets will become public.  A friend shared with colleagues his dream: I want to accumulate some money and buy a car.  Two days later, when the entire department received bonuses, his bonus was much smaller than the amount of the rest.  On the timid questions addressed to the magistrate: Why it happened there wasnt any criticism of my work? Boss was hinted that this employee has a lot of money; because he is going to buy a car.  So, before you speak frankly with the person, look at this issue more closely. Another very unpleasant type of people are brawlers.  They cannot live peacefully, so as constantly need some enemy, even if it is fictional.  Such people are poisoned by the existence of relatives at home and at work colleagues.  A quarrel or explanation of the relationship is not needed.  It is enough to have one hint, even a look and youre waiting for the next flash of anger.  Talking to such people is useless.  The best way is to ignore them completely, but not for the effect, otherwise it will be another cause for scandal.  If suddenly there appears a brawler and has attention on you, at the outset of the conflict it would be better to pretend that suddenly remembered a very important matter, apologize and leave. Returning 15 minutes later, youll probably see that the brawler is calm and even forgot that he wanted to clarify relations with you.  If this method fails, you can try to show such a colleague involved.  Usually, its discouraging such people, and they once and for all leave you alone, as they used to feel like winners, and the role of victim does not suit them. According to Peter Clarke (2005), the main purpose of communication between people is to reach mutual understanding. But its not easy to do.  Why do some people with us communicate easily, and others difficult?  Why with someone we get along, but with someone all the time we quarrel?  Clearly, much easier is to establish relationships with the person with whom there is so-called common ground.   In the art of communication, it is very important to be able to listen and understand someone with whom you speak.  Explaining the people of your intentions and ideas from which you start at the same time, you will be able to prevent many misunderstandings, quarrels and conflicts.  Honesty in a conversation with someone it is often the only way out of conflict.  But the truth must speak out not to humiliate the interlocutor, but rather to elevate his own in his own eyes and to clarify your position. What hinders and what facilitates communication?  Causes of misunderstanding between people can be different: political, religious beliefs, worldview, and psychological characteristics.  However, the main reason lies in the inability to hear each other.  The most important part of communication is listening skills.  If a person listens attentively to his companion, then he is brought up, delves into the problem of the speaker and the like help him properly formulate their t houghts.  Communication is a complex process; it is influenced by various factors: mood; set of circumstances; the nature of man; his sociability; conversely; shyness.  Depending on the type of communication, formal or informal, it is necessary to choose the right demeanor, tone, gestures, words and expressions. According to Carole Hodges (2009), informal communication is communication at home, with parents and friends, formal at work, while studying, with unfamiliar people.  In conversation, we often assume what interferes with understanding.  This is the usage of offensive words and phrases, offensive nicknames, unnecessary cuts.  Attention signs facilitate interpersonal relationships and can soothe and have a lasting impact.  Hello, thank you, please, sorry    these are the simple words have power over our moods.  It is important that they are always present in communication between people at work, in public places. So what is the culture of communication?  If a person is competent to express his thoughts, then he is able to behave with respect for the other party, we say that this man owns a culture of communication. There are rules, implementation of which helps to establish good relations with people: Communication on equal terms, without being coarse and subservience. Respect for the personal opinion of the interlocutor; Lack of desire to find out who is right and who is to blame; Community-level requests, not orders; Search for compromise solutions; The ability to appreciate the decision of another; Ability to accept the experience of others. If a person does not know how to join in the conversation, you should choose any interesting topic for conversation and the time when the person to whom addressed, not occupied any work.  Always remember that the other person is not like you, and we must be able to see things through his eyes, especially in conflict situations.  Respect for the individual is impossible without respect for his point of view, even if it does not converge with yours.  Cultivation ones respect for the people can only be if you learn to see each person individually, that is, those traits that are unique to him. According to Harriet Meyerson (2005), each of us is worthy of respect.  Respecting the other, you respect yourself. Psychologists give good advice, which is: do not forget about the interests of your contact.  Your lively and sincere interest in doing what he is interested in, because he will have animation and enthusiasm. There are some important rules of open and honest conversation with inconvenient companion to be aware of both adults and adolescents: use the word I.  Since the phrase with the words: From my point of view or The way I see it , you are relaxed in conversation and show the other party that there was only my point of view, no claim to ultimate truth.  Thus you will recognize the right to have your own opinion.  Surely, you will listen to people a lot calmer and more attentively. Also, trying to show the other person that his conduct is in the first place. In order to create conditions under which an adult would want to change your behavior, you must try to explain how much they lose in life because of his own behavior. There is a possibility also to ask the other person to change behavior.  It can be explained to him exactly what he can do in this situation in order to fix it.  It is possible that, because you do not want to offend him, it will be quite difficult to tell hi m the truth.  But remember: silent, you can cause him harm. Of course, someone can say that such way of building relationships is too long, but it takes much less time, energy and emotions than the communication of action-reaction, because such talk does not give any result.  Most often, honesty is the best policy in dealing with people.  Its amazing how often we are beginning to communicate with the cunning strategies and tactics while forgetting to try at first just to speak openly.  Honest dialogue is the most effective, simple and reliable means for turning conflict into cooperation. Now I would like to elaborate on the concept of informal communication. Each of us has his own experience of friendship at work.  Although the prospects for such relationships many consider skeptical.  And no wonder!  Informal communication between colleagues suggests a greater openness, the ability to strike a balance between personal and work, the adoption of the inevitable differences in the credentials and prospects (the difference in salary levels of access to information, the rate to move up the career ladder).  Hard tests for the friendship What do you do?  Without claiming to be comprehensive, lets try to answer this eternal question. We must admit that informal communication is an important mechanism that contributes to the relationship between people in any group.  Formally, we will call the communication that takes place in accordance with rules, regulations and instructions, existing in your organization or its subdivision and subject to address the specific challenges facing you. Informal communication this is your kind of relationship with another person, based on mutual acceptance of personal qualities and virtues, which implies a certain level of understanding, harmony, psychological closeness.  It is in these respects satisfies the need for self-realization within the framework of this work, respect and acceptance. According to Stephen Rampur (2010), informal relationships exist on two levels of psychological closeness: the primary and rational. Primary level represents already the impression with the first contact (long acquaintance is not required, a feeling that you know a person a hundred years).  It is characterized by high spontaneity of emotional perception, unawareness and little amenable to volitional regulation.  Rational level is based on an understanding of the similarities attitudes, values, norms and life experiences.  It occurs at a certain stage of relations with the man, understood and controlled by us. It is believed, that a relationships based on shared values and interests are more stable at work rather than relationships based on likes and dislikes.  If you look closely at your existing team of informal relations, they are likely to be secured in one of five forms of interaction: Couple represents the two people that are mutually sympathetic to each other.  Often, one of them is a supplement or companion of another. Triangle shows three people sympathizing with each other, and make up his small, yet very close core group. Square can be formed as a collection of pairs, the relationship between them does not necessarily have the same intensity. Chain is a linear relationship between several people, which under certain conditions can become a source of rumors. Star is based on one leader opinion, to whom are approached several members of the team. Each of these forms of informal communication in one way or another arises in any workplace with a specific purpose namely, the best adaptation to its internal rules and laws of existence. According to Jeanne Segal (2007), in every company, as in any formal group, there are informal relations, which largely determine the climate and the internal atmosphere in the team. Thus, friendships at work and at its end, cooperation and mutual help shape a healthy psychological climate in the company and provide a basis for the development of each member organization and collective as a whole. Psychologists believe that friendship is very good for business if the business grows out of shared interests.  There is no matter how closely you communicate with people on a personal level, formal relations are sensitive, which cannot be discounted.  There is always a risk that one of the friends will show himself as a traitor.  Elucidation of relationships, mutual resentment and claims become the property of the whole team. As a result, suffers a general matter, and friendship.  But the forecast could be optimistic, if a working friendship follows the main rule to clearly separate personal and business interests. That is why, if you are not sure whether that will be able to muster the necessary tact, and comply with the above restrictions, it is better not to take risks and work with friends  in different companies. Taking into consideration mentioned above, I would like to make a conclusion. To be in harmony with yourself and the people around you, you need to create an atmosphere of mutual understanding at work, to build up contacts. Often we get tired, cant avoid conflict situations.  Everybody has many reasons to spoil relations with colleagues. We cannot avoid difficulties at work, because difficult, controversial issues will always exist.  But we can learn the ability to keep ourselves in hand, to live in harmony with people close to us. What is the basis of art communication and what methods to use? First of all, try to relate friendly to everybody; try to create an atmosphere of comfort among friends and colleagues. Do not transfer your home problems to your colleagues.  If you feel stress, or fatigue, use relaxation techniques. Endurance helps to behave you correctly in a conflict situation.  In general, avoid emotional showdown, do not engage in protracted disputes.  But if a conflict occurs, try not to develop it calmly and analyze what can be done to normalize the situation.  Be prepared to compromise for the sake of good relations. In communicating with colleagues, try to be genuinely interested in their affairs, to help when needed.  Listen more than talk.  Limit the desire to condemn anyone who made a mistake.  If you have to solve a complex issue in the service or at home, do not transfer responsibility to others, to develop the habit of self-confident action. Continuing to study the literature on how to work on them, improve their psychological stability.  Perhaps this knowledge will help you choose the right course of action, and will contribute to a pleasant chat with colleagues.

A stereotype is defined by the Oxford Dictionary

A stereotype is defined by the Oxford Dictionary Every individual holds stereotypes. A stereotype is defined by the Oxford Dictionary of Psychology (pg. 730) as: a relatively fixed and oversimplified generalisation about a group or class of people, usually focusing on negative or unfavourable characteristics. When people put too much faith in stereotypical descriptions of people they can become prejudiced and can often discriminate against other groups. This can be very harmful and has led to countless atrocities, such as the racial purging of the Jews by the Nazis. Prejudices still are being fought through laws, such as Equal Opportunities legislation. However, the subject being discussed is not whether stereotypes are harmful or justifiable; it is whether they have a practical purpose, or are wasteful. It is generally the common consensus that stereotyping and prejudice should not continue. However without stereotypes we may find the social world a lot harder to perceive and understand. We rely on stereotypes to help us function in society. With such a diverse population, the environment we live in could be very confusing. Unfortunately stereotypes may block out a lot of what makes our society so diverse and just group people into simple categories. They may also affect peoples choices in life. Career paths people may want to take could seem inappropriate for someone in their group and so are avoided. From an evolutionary standpoint, stereotypes must have a use because they exist. People start creating stereotypes from a very young age and they are hard to break. However, having a purpose doesnt exclude the fact that stereotypes are wasteful. The main beneficial use of stereotypes is that they greatly speed up cognitive processing. The world is full of people, they all look unique and the all behave differently. If each person chose to actively perceive and evaluate every individual they encountered, there wouldnt be much time for anything else. This is why stereotypes exist. People can glance around a room, see a spectrum of faces and not have to stop to think about each person. This frees up the brain for more important tasks. Macrae, Milne, Bodenhausen (1994) as cited by Taylor, Peplau, Sears (pg. 184). conducted an experiment to see if the priming of stereotypes can leave the brain freer to process other information. Students were presented with a list of trait words for an individual and, at the same time, information about Indonesia. Half of these students were first given a group label for the individual, e.g. Black or Italian. Those given the group label remembered more traits that were label consistent and more information about Indonesia. This demonstrates that stereotypes make the social world a lot easier to process and are definitely very useful. However, this oversimplification of the world we see can lead us to prejudice against other groups, and can lead to discrimination. People often look only at the negative characteristics of a group. In doing this we may waste the important contributions that these different groups perspectives can offer. Taylor, Fiske, Eticoff, Ruderman (1978) as cited by Taylor et al. (pg. 185) asked participants to observe a conversation between people of a mix of races. When asked to remember which individual made certain contributions the participants would often only be able to remember the race of the individual. This shows that people often place far too much emphasis on group membership and can ignore the attributes of the individual. This can lead people to ignore information that comes from a source that they may deem inferior. The second beneficial use of stereotypes is their ability to increase individuals self esteem. Everyone has the desire to increase their self esteem and a lack of self esteem can lead to depression and social isolation. Stereotypes can improve an individuals self esteem through a number of ways. Tajfel (1982) as cited by Taylor et al. (pg. 188) proposed the Social Identity Theory. This is the process by which people categorise the social world into in-groups, in which the individual is a member, and out-groups, into which everyone else is categorised. People can derive their self esteem from their inclusion in the in-group if they perceive their group to be superior to other groups. This is theory is enhanced by Tajfel, Billig, Bundy, Flament, (1971) as cited by Taylor et al. (pg. 186) and their theory of In-group Favouritism. People will automatically positively discriminate towards their in-group, which promotes the view of a superior in-group. Also Ethnocentrism can play a part in promoting self esteem, through the assumption that the in-group is the centre of the social world and is superior to all out-groups. While many people may argue that deriving self esteem from the view of superiority is immoral, that is not the topic being discussed. High self esteem is an advantage to all people, and so any method for raising self esteem can be seen as useful. But this method for promoting self esteem does come with disadvantages. The Social Identity theory can have quite negative effects on peoples lives. If an individual holds a negative image of the in-group or the in-group is associated with a negative stereotype then this can be harmful to the individuals self esteem. Asgari, Dasgupta Gilbert Cote (2010) undertook a longitudinal study into how exposure to successful in-group members affected female students. They found that not only did the students have to have frequent contact with the role model, but they also had to have evaluated the contact to be meaningful. This however not only improved their self concept of their in-group; it also raised their career aspirations and their engagement in their studies. This in turn led to improved academic success. This study shows that victims of stereotyping can often believe those stereotypes so much that it takes repeated, powerful interaction with stereotype inconsistent individuals to feel that they too can break out of the stereotype they find themselves in . People that are exposed to negative stereotypes are also subject to stereotype threat. Stereotype threat was first proposed by Aronson and Steele (1995) and it occurs when members of a group find themselves subject to a negative stereotype. It results in the individual being aware that they are being stereotypically evaluated and so their performance, in areas associated with the stereotype, suffer. However, stereotype threat has been shown to spill over into many areas of everyday living. Being in a stigmatized group can contribute to a number of societal problems, such as aggression, obesity, decision making and impulse control (Inzlicht Kang. 2010). This serves to maintain the negative stereotype. However the study by Inzlicht and Kang was a correlation study, and so cause and effect could not be inferred. This is one example of how stereotypes can be self fulfilling prophecies. However they can also act in a positive direction. If a person is aware of a positive stereotype about them then they can have an improved performance. Shih, Pittinsky Ambady (1999) as cited by Taylor et al. (pg. 172) showed that Asian women performed better at a maths test when the Asian stereotype was cued. However they performed worse when the women stereotype was cued. These studies show how stereotypes can have a dramatic effect on our behaviour without any conscious action. Stereotyping can also have affects on career choices. Women exposed to primes of gender inconsistent roles (e.g. a female surgeon) showed lower enthusiasm for these roles because of upward social comparison threat (Rudman Phelan. 2010). They felt threatened by being outperformed by someone in their in-group. If women didnt believe that it was rare for women to be able to become a surgeon, they may not have felt this comparison threat. Also students are often choosing to not go into a career in sales because of their stereotypes about salesmen. (Lee, Sandfield Bhaliwal. 2007). Students think of salesmen as pushy and unsatisfied, hence they assume that if they were to go into sales then they would waste the time they spent on their degree. This cuts off a career path that may have been right for some students, but they choose not to take it because of the stereotypes they hold. So while stereotypes do have some definite uses, they also create waste. Stereotypes speed up cognitive processing, which is necessary for people to function in the diverse social environment in which we find ourselves. This is at the cost of the individual; we lose focus of each person and just push people into categories. Stereotypes can increase the self esteem of some. However not all can gain the benefit of this boost in social identity. Stereotype threat can have a very negative effect of peoples lives. Stereotypes can waste the potential of many people that have denied themselves, or have been denied through prejudice. Stereotypes have led to the needless waste of life in wars and through civil struggles for equality. Therefore, while stereotypes serve a purpose, they waste potential, information and happiness.

Abortion - Bible is Pro-Choice :: Argumentative Persuasive Topics

Bible is Pro-Choice Without any question, the Bible is overwhelminly pro-choice. Although the Hebrews were influenced by many of the laws of their Assyrian, Sumerian, and Babylonian neighbors, all of which forbade abortion, the Hebrew scriptures had no laws forbidding abortion, not a single one. This was chiefly because the Hebrews placed a higher value on women than did their neighbors. There are, however, some references to the termination of pregnancy. Exod. 21:22-25 says that if a pregnant woman has a miscarriage as a result of injuries she receives during a fight between two men, the penalty for the loss of the fetus is a fine; if the woman is killed, the penalty is "life for life." It is obvious from this passage that men whose fighting had caused a woman to miscarry were not regarded as murderers because they had not killed the woman. The woman, undeniably, had greater moral and religious worth than did the fetus, which was nothing more than a worthless glob of tissue, a meaningless, lifeless conglomeration of cells - contrary to antichoice people who cons ider it "human life." There is also reference in the Mosaic law to what is now called "abortion on request" Num. 5:11-31 indicates that if a husband suspects his wife is pregnant by another man, the "husband shall bring his wife to the priest," who shall mix a drink intended to make her confess or be threatened with termination of her pregnancy if she has been unfaithful to her husband. In other words, the Jewish Church was directly involved in bringing about abortions for those countless Hebrew women who fell into this category referred to above. Yes, the Jewish priests actually performed the abortion on the women. The Bible is undeniably specific on this point. Of course, there are less intelligent biblical exegetes who interpret this in various other obviously erroneous ways. It is best not to consider their ignorant opinions in this matter.

The Evolution of Federalism Essay -- History Historical Democracy Essa

The Evolution of Federalism American federalism has changed drastically since its genesis. In 1776 the thirteen colonies adopted the Articles of Confederation in order to coordinate their efforts in the war for independence. The Articles of Confederation bound the states together in two main aspects; foreign and military affairs. The Articles of Confederation worked well while all the states had a common cause. However, as soon as the war ended and interests began to change, it became obvious that the Articles were not enough. This brings on the creation of Federalism (Reinventing American Federalism).   Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  In May of 1787, in the city of Philadelphia, delegates from all thirteen states met in order to â€Å"create a more perfect union†. The result was the Constitution of the United States. Delegates debated over which form of government would best suit both the security, and the freedom that many sought in this new government. The delegates rejected both confederal and unitary models of government for a new form of government called federalism. Federalism differs from the former two in that, unlike the unitary form of government, which is ruled by a central government, federalism is not based on a hierarchy in which the state levels of government perform the duties and tasks handed down by the central governmental system. Also, unlike the confederal system which gave all power to the states, only some of the power would be granted to the states. The federal government would handle foreign affairs, trade, military, and the economy (Reinventing American Federali sm).   Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Throughout the first half century of federalism, many argued over the roles that the federal and the state systems should play. By the time of the civil war, slavery was at the top of the debate. Should slavery be a national or a state issue? The end of the civil war brought an answer to this debate with the addition of the 13th, 14th, and 15th amendments (Hyde). These amendments ended slavery, and reduced the power of the states over civil rights matters.   Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  The federal government started taking on a bigger role in the turn of the twentieth century. President Roosevelt expanded federal authority with his New Deal program. The New Deal program was funded by the federal government, but administered by the states. This brought on the grant-in-aid system, a system in which the federa... ...through the minds of every one of those delegates in Philadelphia. These questions are still being debated today. The role of the government is constantly changing. It has the great ability to adapt to the needs of the people. During the great depression, the federal government stepped in and gave aid to the needy. During the struggle for equality, the federal government gave rights to minorities when states would not. Federalism is perhaps the greatest form of government by the people and for the people because of its evolution. Because people and society change, so must the form of government that presides over them. Federalism allows the flexibility to do so. Works Cited Hyde, Henry. The Constitution of the United States of America.   Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Washington: United States Government Printing Office, 2000. Reinventing American Federalism. Issues of Democracy: Electronic Journals of the U.S. Information Agency. April, 1997 Volume 2, Issue 2. Sidlow, Edward, and Beth Henshcen eds. America at Odds 4th ed.   Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  California: Wadsworth, Thomas Learning, 2004. Simon, Dennis. The Civil Rights Movement,   Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  March 26, 2005. http://faculty.smu.edu/dsimon/Change-Civ%20Rts.html

Interpersonal Relationships Paper

There is evidence that a motivation for helping is feeling empathy for the other person. Researchers hypothesize that people are altruistic as long as the result is reducing another's stress. Unfortunately, some researchers believe that altruistic helping is instrumental egoistic response. Providing evidence of this is difficult as egoism and altruism are motivational concepts, and they cannot be directly observed, (Nier, 2010). Summary of Issues The arguments in contention deal with altruism and whether people feel motivation for pure altruism or empathy. C. Daniel Batson and his colleagues believe that people have a motivation to help not for what they can receive but for pure altruistic reasons. Nier (2010) states that people who are altruistically motivated to help do so with the goal of increasing the welfare of others, (Nier, 2010, p. 379). Batson, Duncan, Ackerman, Cuckley, and Birch performed an experiment using similarity information to manipulate another's empathy. With 44 female introductory psychology students as the subjects the women are randomly selected to fill out a personal and interest questionnaire. The subjects were assigned to four conditions of easy versus difficult escape and similar versus dissimilar victim design through a random block procedure with 11 people in each cell. One participant from each cell is excluded because that person can suspect Elaine was not receiving shocks. They participants are told to wait for a second subject, Elaine, who is a conspirator of the experiment, and given an introduction while waiting. Drawing roles after signing a consent form is next with the 2 drawing rigged. They measure the level of arousal on a monitor to determine accurately the worker’s emotional response as well as help to form an impression. They manipulate the difficulty to escape a situation by letting every subject know that Elaine will complete all 10 trials. This gives the subjects a chance to help her by trading places with her after the second trial. They use similarity manipulation and need situation to determine the subject’s level of empathy. The experimenters give the subjects a chance to trade places with Elaine if they so choose to do so. The results suggest to researchers that suggesting that empathic motivation to help can be altruistic. Batson et. al. conclude that the easy-escape-dissimilar-victim condition is lower than the other three conditions. The difficulty to escape from the situation has a big effect on helping. Robert Cialdini and his colleagues believe that people have a motivation to help others so that they can feel better themselves rather than empathy. Those egoistically motivated to help others help so that they can increase their own welfare and personal gain. The idea is that those with low empathy should help less but when a person’s empathy is high, the sense of escape minimizes by the person’s primary altruistic motive to help the victim. Cialdini and his colleagues sought to test alternative explanations separating subjects’ feelings from empathic orientation. They replicate the Batson et. al. procedure presenting a gratifying event, allowing the subjects a chance to help a victim or escape the situation, finally assessing the subjects’ helpful tendencies against Batson’s measure of empathic concern. The results find that subjects with a high-empathy-set had elevated helping scores except when they got a sadness-canceling reward. This shows that they are no more helpful than those with low- 3 empathy. It seems that it was personal sadness that causes a person to have an increase helping motivation. Evaluation of Arguments Each argument proposes hypotheses about altruism and if it exists or not and how much altruism plays in motivating others to help another. Empirical research with a basis of self-interest provides limited and often insufficient explanations for some helping behaviors meaning that altruism can be another separate construct, (Burns, et. al, 2006, p. 83). It is not necessarily just altruism that encouraged the participants to help but a sense of sadness over the victim’s plight. By relieving the sadness of the victim, the subject’s sadness can disappear. Helping can have rewards for most adults it can restore mood. Rather than helping for altruistic reasons, people help others for their own reasons such as personal mood management. Batson and his colleagues identify an empathy-altruism model, which involves one person witnessing another’s distress elicits personal distress and empathic concern from the witness. Personal distress can promotes an egoistic need to help another’s distress and empathic concern develops an altruistic desire to reduce the other person’s distress, (Dovidio, Schroeder, & Allen, 1990, 249). The other determination of some researchers is that people who have high levels of empathy have high levels of helpfulness. Empathy can enhance prosocial behavior. Selfishness and egalitarianism are important for interpersonal settings, whereas the outcomes for another, or altruism, are important for enhancing joint outcomes, (Van Lange, 2008, p. 767). The 4 participants saw Elaine’s distress and wanted to eliminate it as their need to escape the situation decreased. Support of a Concept After analyzing both arguments and evaluating them, it seems that the most plausible argument is that altruism does exist, but it is not the biggest motivator for helping others. Some researchers believe that there are several volunteering activities where altruism is not a particular motivator, (Burns et. al. , 2006, p. 82). Involuntary volunteering is one. A person can have a court order to volunteer for example. People can start out with altruistic reasons for helping but altruism is not always the main motivator. In some ways helping another when they feel a sense of connection cannot be selfless because by helping another would be helping the helper, (Maner et. l, 2002, p. 1602). Some studies have evidence that suggest that when people appear altruistic that the motivations are ultimately egoistic by nature. Conclusion Altruism is about doing the greater good without any expectations back. Unfortunately, whereas altruism does exist many researchers determine that helping others is not for purely altruistic reason as people help others for many reasons. People can start out with altruistic motivations but they do not always stay altruistic.

Early childhood education Essay

Describe potential negative effects of this curriculum and how it is developmentally inappropriate to literacy development. Sixty semester hours (or 90 quarter hours) of credits from an accredited college or university with six semester or nine quarter hours in courses related directly to child care and/or child development, from birth to age six; or One year (1560 clock hours) of child development experience in a nursery school, kindergarten, or licensed day care center and 30 semester hours (or 45 quarter hours) of credits from an accredited college or university with six semester or nine quarter hours in courses related directly to child care and/or child development, from birth to age six; orI will provide for you a comprehensive description of an individual who is trustworthy, ambitious and complease discuss specific values and beliefs of the teaching philosophy/http://www. scholastic. com/teachers/teaching-ideas/sharon-taylorI will provide for you a comprehensive description of an Eat in kitchen, plenty of closet space. Laundry in the building. Good schools in the area. Shopping nearby. Available now. Please call 847-991-5625 to schedule a showing. $800/month. One month security deposit required. This is a spacious, clean, and newly painted with new carpet apartment. This apartment has two bedrooms, 1 bath, separate dining room and balcony. The rent is $800 and laundry is also within the building. Please call (847)884-0544 for more information. This apartment is available as of right now. This is a spacious, clean, and newly painted with new carpet apartment. This apartment has two bedrooms, 1 bath, separate dining room and balcony. The rent is $800 and laundry is also within the building. Please call (847)884-0544 for more information. This apartment is available as of right now. This is a spacious, clean, and newly painted with new carpet apartment. This apartment has two bedrooms, 1 bath, separate dining room and balcony. The rent is $800 and laundry is also within the building. Please call (847)884-0544 for more information. This apartment is available as of right now. This is a spacious, clean, and newly painted with new carpet apartment. This apartment has two bedrooms, 1 bath, separate dining room and balcony. The rent is $800 and laundry is also within the building. Please call (847)884-0544 for more information. This apartment is available as of right now. This is a spacious, clean, and newly painted with new carpet apartment. This apartment has two bedrooms, 1 bath, separate dining room and balcony. The rent is $800 and laundry is also within the building. Please call (847)884-0544 for more information. This apartment is available as of right now. Large 2 bedroom, 1 bath apartment near Lake Cook Road and 53 expressway. Eat in kitchen, plenty of closet space. Laundry in the building. Good schools in the area. Shopping nearby. Available now. Please call 847-991-5625 to schedule a showing. $800/month. One month security deposit required. Large 2 bedroom, 1 bath apartment near Lake Cook Road and 53 expressway. Eat in kitchen, plenty of closet space. Laundry in the building. Good schools in the area. Shopping nearby. Available now. Please call 847-991-5625 to schedule a showing. $800/month. One month security deposit required. Large 2 bedroom, 1 bath apartment near Lake Cook Road and 53 expressway. Eat in kitchen, plenty of closet space. Laundry in the building. Good schools in the area. Shopping nearby. Available now. Please call 847-991-5625 to schedule a showing. $800/month. One month security deposit required. Describe potential negative effects of this curriculum and how it is developmentally inappropriate to literacy development. Sixty semester hours (or 90 quarter hours) of credits from an accredited college or university with six semester or nine quarter hours in courses related directly to child care and/or child development, from birth to age six; or One year (1560 clock hours) of child development experience in a nursery school, kindergarten, or licensed day care center and 30 semester hours (or 45 quarter hours). Of credits from an accredited college or university with six semester or nine quarter hours in courses related directly to child care and/or child development, from birth to age six; orSixty semester hours (or 90 quarter hours) of credits from an accredited college or university with six semester or nine quarter hours in courses related directly to child care and/or child development, from birth to age six;

Nebosh Igc Questions and Answers 1998-2005

THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A1: IDENTIFYING AND CONTROLLING HAZARDS JUNE 1998 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed: 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it. The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. | 1|(a)|Define the term `ergonomics'. |(2)| |(b)|Outline the possible effects on health that may be caused by the poor ergonomic design of visual display unit (VDU) workstations. (4)| |(c)|Outline the main factors to be considered in an ergonomic assessment of a workstation to be used by a VDU operator. |(14)| |||| Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. | 2||Provide sketches to show clearly the nature of the following mechanical hazards f rom moving parts of machinery: || |(i)|entanglement|(2)| |(ii)|crushing|(2)| |(iii)|drawing-in|(2)| |(iv)|shear. |(2)| |||| |(a)|Outline the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers. |(4)| |(b)|Outline the inspection and maintenance requirements for fire extinguishers in the workplace. |(4)| |||| 4||Explain the meaning of the following terms in relation to noise control|| |(i)|silencing|(2)| |(ii)|absorption|(2)| |(iii)|damping|(2)| |(iv)|isolation. |(2)| |||| 5||Outline a procedure for the safe lifting of a load by the use of a crane, having ensured that the crane has been correctly selected and positioned for the job. |(8)| |||| |(a)|Define the term `target organ' within the context of occupational health. |(2)| |(b)|Outline the personal hygiene practices that should be followed to reduce the risk of ingestion of a hazardous substance. |(6)| |||| 7||Identify FOUR different types of hazard that may necessitate the use of special footwear explaining in EACH case how the footwear affords protection. |(8)| |||| 8||List the items that should be included on an inspection checklist designed to ensure the safety of portable electrical appliances. |(8)| |||| |||| 9||Outline the main precautions to be taken when carrying out excavation work. (8)| |||| 10|(a)|State TWO respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos. |(2)| |(b)|Identify where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work. |(6)| |||| 11||List the ways in which a fork lift truck may become unstable whilst in operation. |(8)| NEBOSH Certificate – June 1998 Paper A1 – Identifying and Controlling Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiner’s Report Section 1 Question 1 This question aimed to assess candidates' breadth of knowledge in relation to ergonomics. Socratic Seminar QuestionsMany candidates, for part (a), were able to provide adequate definitions of ergonomics, which is generally accepted as being the study of the interaction between workers and their work, and is concerned with the design of the workplace, work equipment and work methods with the needs and limitations of the human operator in mind. Definitions such as `man-machine interface', which still commonly appear in candidates' answers, are considered to be too narrowly focused. Ergonomics is concerned with far more than simply the use of machinery.Part (b) required candidates to demonstrate an understanding of the possible health effects that may be caused by the poor ergonomic design of VDU workstations. A number of candidates simply listed conditions such as work-related upper limb disorders and eye strain, which was insufficient to gain high marks. The question required candidates to provide an outline of such conditions in order to demonstrate a proper understanding of the effects. An adequate outline would typically include detail of symptoms and the circumstances that would make the effects more likely.The final part of the question was answered reasonably well by most candidates. Stronger candidates were able to give well structured answers that considered the equipment, the environment, the task and the individual, and their inter-relationships. Some candidates went beyond the scope of the question and paraphrased the requirements of the Health and Safety (Display Screen Equipment) Regulations 1992, such as the requirement for eyesight tests. In fact, most of the factors relevant to an ergonomic assessment are contained in a schedule to these Regulations.In addition, some answers included non-ergonomic issues such as fire safety and electricity. Once again, candidates are reminded to read the question thoroughly and to take note of key words and phrases. Section 2 Question 2 An understanding of mechanical hazards associated with moving par ts of machinery is a key part of the Certificate syllabus and this question was designed to test candidates' understanding of the categorisation of mechanical hazards given in Part 1 of BS EN 292:1991, `Safety of machinery – basic concepts, general principles for design' (and in the former British Standard, BS 5304:1988, `Safeguarding of machinery').Examiners were not looking for works of art; they did, however, require something that clearly represented parts of machinery and which demonstrated the particular hazard being referred to. Arrows to show the direction of movement helped enormously in this task. Some sketches were so poor that it was impossible to tell whether a hazard existed at all whereas others were extremely well presented and graphic, occasionally verging on the macabre.A considerable number of candidates showed confusion between the different types of hazard; in particular, entanglement and drawing-in hazards were often interchanged, and `shearing' seemed u nfamiliar to many. Examiners were quite concerned that on the whole candidates did not take advantage of what should have been easily obtainable marks from this question. Question 3 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. For part (a), nearly all candidates were able to offer an outline of the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers.Typical factors mentioned by candidates included accessibility, visibility, proximity to exits and escape routes, travel distances, and the means of supporting the equipment off the ground and free from obstruction. Only a few candidates, however, identified the need to protect extinguishers from the weather and other sources of damage. A little more difficulty was found with part (b), which required candidates to outline procedures to ensure that fire extinguishers remain operational.There were, however, some very good answers that clearly differentiated between the purposes of an inspection and those of maintenance. Inspection of fire extinguishers typically takes the form of routine (eg monthly) visual checks to ensure that extinguishers are in place, have not been discharged and bear no obvious damage. Maintenance, on the other hand, is something rather more extensive and usually involves annual tests by a competent person according to the manufacturer's instructions in order to ensure the integrity of the extinguisher, with the removal and replacement of equipment found to be faulty.Question 4 This question sought to assess candidates' knowledge of basic noise control terms and principles. Unfortunately, many candidates either confused the terms, particularly damping and absorption, or were unable to demonstrate a clear understanding of the terms in relation to noise control. The latter group of candidates sometimes resorted to giving other information on noise that had not been asked for, such as the requirements of the Noise at Work Regulations 1989, and for which marks were n ot therefore available.The Examiners were looking for answers which explained that: silencing refers to the suppression of noise generated by the flow of air, gas or steam in ducts and pipes, or when exhausted to the atmosphere, and is achieved by the inclusion of either absorptive material or baffles; absorption is used to reduce the amount of reflected noise by using materials such as foam or mineral wool; damping is used primarily to reduce the amount of noise radiating from large panels and is achieved by increasing the stiffness of the panels; and isolation refers to the physical separation of people from the noise source (eg acoustic booths or havens), or to the reduction in structure-borne noise by vibration isolation (eg flexible pipes or anti-vibration machine mounts). Some good answers included simple sketches and examples to help to demonstrate a complete understanding of this area. Question 5 This was a question where candidates could earn high marks by imagining a lifti ng operation and then applying appropriate controls from first principles. It was not necessary, therefore, to have a detailed knowledge of cranes or lifting tackle. Some candidates wasted valuable time by going into detail on the suitability of the crane itself, even though the question was carefully worded so as to eliminate this aspect.A procedure for a lifting operation needs to take into account such issues as: the suitability of the lifting tackle (safe working load, free from defect, etc); the competence of the persons involved (driver, slinger, signaller); ensuring the load is lifted vertically, and that it is secure, balanced and controlled during the lift by the attachment of tag lines where necessary; ensuring proper communication; keeping the area clear of other persons; and performing each part of the operation (lifting, slewing/moving and lowering) at a rate that maintains proper control. Question 6 Most candidates, for part (a), were able to convey the idea that the h armful effects of a toxic substance are normally confined to particular organs within the human body, such as the lungs, liver, skin or kidneys. Hence, a `target organ' is the part of the body that sustains an adverse effect when it is exposed to, or is contaminated by, a particular harmful substance or agent. Part (b) looked at the risk of ingestion and the role played by personal hygiene in reducing the risk.Again, candidates are reminded of the need to read the question carefully since many appeared to miss the words `personal hygiene' and provided answers that took in the entire COSHH hierarchy. Good answers to part (b) provided detail of personal hygiene practices such as regular hand washing, the restriction of smoking and eating in the workplace, the use of suitable personal protective equipment (eg gloves), and the need for removing and cleaning contaminated clothing. Question 7 The importance of foot protection is illustrated by the fact that around 21,000 foot and ankle in juries were reported to the enforcing authorities in 1996/97. This question aimed to test candidates' awareness and understanding of the need for foot protection in many occupational settings.It was pleasing to note that a high proportion of candidates were able to provide excellent answers to this question, identifying good examples of the types of hazard and the appropriate footwear requirements. The most common included: falling objects (steel toe-caps), sharp objects (steel in-soles), flammable atmospheres (anti-static footwear), spread of contamination (washable boots), molten metal (heat resistant boots and gaiters), electricity (rubber soles), wet environments (impermeable wellingtons), slippery surfaces (non-slip soles), and cold environments (thermally insulated footwear). Question 8 The Examiners were pleased with the overall response to this question.Most candidates were able to offer fairly comprehensive lists of inspection items that included: equipment appropriate for the task and environment; equipment tested; equipment, plugs, connectors and cables free from damage; correct wiring and sound connections; fuses and other means of preventing excess current in place and of correct rating; accessible and appropriate means of isolation; and system not overloaded. Question 9 The dangers of excavation work include collapse of sides, falls of persons, materials or vehicles into the excavation, contact with buried services, build-up of fumes, ingress of water and contact with mechanical plant. Candidates should have been able to outline a range of precautions designed to protect against such dangers.Precautions include: detection of services (eg from plans, use of cable/pipe detectors, etc); support of sides; storage of materials and spoil away from edge; means of preventing vehicles falling into excavation (eg stop blocks); guard-rails and barriers; means of preventing collapse of adjacent structures; safe means of access/egress; testing for, and ventil ation of, noxious fumes; means of pumping out water; procedures for working with mechanical plant; and general issues such as inspection, training and supervision. Candidates who were able to provide detail of such precautions, often by means of examples, performed particularly well on this question. Question 10 Most candidates were able to provide two respiratory diseases for part (a), asbestosis and lung cancer being the most popular.In similar vein, most candidates, for part (b), were able to identify several areas where asbestos could be encountered in a building during renovation. These included pipe lagging, wall and roof panels, ceiling tiles, textured coatings such as fire resistant encapsulation of metal girders, insulation materials, and in gaskets and other seals. Although not affecting the marks, the Examiners were a little surprised by the few answers that referred to mesothelioma in part (a), despite this particular type of cancer being predominantly associated with as bestos exposure. Question 11 Most candidates coped reasonably well with this question, with marks being relatively easy to obtain when a structured approach, which considered the load, the environment and the vehicle itself, was adopted.Typical issues mentioned were: insecure, excessive or uneven loading; incorrect tilt and/or elevation of forks when travelling; uneven or unconsolidated ground; slopes (and incorrect procedures to deal with them); obstructions (overhead and low level); cornering at excessive speeds; sudden braking; poor condition of tyres; and mechanical failure. THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A2: THE MANAGEMENT OF SAFETY AND HEALTH JUNE 1998 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed: 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it.The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. | 1|(a)|Out line the duties placed on employers under the Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992. |(4)| |(b)|Describe the FOUR factors that should be considered when making an assessment of manual handling operations. |(16)| |||| Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. | 2||Outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with a workplace emergency. |(8)| |||| 3|(a)|Define the term `negligence'|(2)| (b)|Outline the THREE standard conditions that must be met for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence against an employer. |(6)| |||| 4||Outline the key points that should be covered in a training session for employees on the reporting of accidents/incidents. |(8)| |||| 5||List the main requirements of the Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1992. |(8)| |||| 6||With reference to the Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996:|| |(i)|explain the difference between `consulting' and `informing'|(2)| |(ii)|outline the health and safety matters on which employers must consult their employees. |(6)| |||| ||Outline TWO reactive measures and TWO proactive measures that can be used in monitoring an organisation's health and safety performance. |(8)| |||| 8||Outline the reasons why employees may fail to comply with safety procedures at work. |(8)| |||| |||| 9|(a)|Explain the meaning of the terms: (i) ‘occupational exposure standard’ (OES) (ii) ‘maximum exposure limit’ (MEL). |(2)(2)| |(b)|Outline FOUR actions management could take when an MEL has been exceeded. |(4)| |||| 10|(a)|Explain the meaning of the term ‘safe system of work’. |(2)| |(b)|Describe the enforcement action that could be taken by an enforcing authority when a safe system of work has not been implemented. |(6)| |||| 1||Outline the factors to consider when making an assessment of first-aid provision in a workplace. |(8)| NEBOSH Certificate – June 1998 Paper A2 – The management of safety and health Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiner’s Report Section 1 Question 1 With manual handling injuries amongst the most common type of injury sustained by people at work, this question sought to test the depth and breadth of knowledge of candidates with regard both to the legal requirements relating to manual handling and to the practical considerations of conducting manual handling assessments. There were some very good responses to the first part of this question.Good answers outlined the employers' duties contained in regulation 4 of the Regulations of: avoiding manual handling operations wherever possible; conducting suitable and sufficient assessments of the tasks; taking steps to reduce the risk of injury to the lowest level reasonably practicable; providing information to employees on the weig ht and weight distribution of the load; and reviewing assessments as necessary. Part (b) required candidates to describe the four factors to be considered in an assessment of manual handling operations. The four factors sought, and which nearly all candidates correctly identified, were the task, the load, the environment and the individual.The Examiners awarded marks to candidates who were able to consider a wide range of issues under each, and which are listed in Column 2 of Schedule 1 of the Regulations. Therefore, when considering the task, issues such as the distance of the load from the trunk, body movements and postures required (eg twisting, stooping, stretching, excessive carrying, etc), excessive pushing or pulling, and the work rate imposed by the process, are all relevant. Similarly, a range of issues associated with the load would include its weight, bulkiness, stability, sharpness, temperature and the ease with which it can be grasped. When considering the environment, factors such as ambient temperature, floor conditions, space and lighting are important.Lastly, a suitable and sufficient assessment would consider the individual by looking at physical capabilities, health (eg fitness, pregnancy) and the requirements for special information and training. The overall standard of response to this question was extremely good and Examiners were pleased that candidates were generally able to show a clear understanding of such an important health and safety issue. Section 2 Question 2 This question required candidates to outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with workplace emergencies such as a fire, explosion, bomb scare, chemical leakage or other dangerous occurrence. Formal procedures should be established to deal with such eventualities and are a specific requirement of the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1992.Responses to this question were varied with some candidates able to provide qui te reasonable answers and others merely focusing on what to do in an actual emergency (usually a fire) rather than when preparing a procedure to deal with one. Better candidates provided a wide range of considerations, including amongst many other possibilities: the identification and training requirements of persons with specific responsibilities; the layout of the premises in relation to escape routes, etc; the number of persons affected; assessment of special needs (disabled persons, children, etc); warning systems; emergency lighting; the location of shut-off valves, isolation witches, hydrants, etc; the equipment required to deal with the emergency; the location of assembly points; communication with emergency services; and the training and/or information to be provided to employees, visitors, the local community and others who might be affected. Question 3 Disappointingly, many candidates found it difficult to provide, for part (a), a clear definition of negligence, a tort inv olving a breach of the common law duty to take reasonable care. As has happened in the past, candidates sometimes confused the issue by introducing aspects of criminal liability, in particular by introducing the statutory duties under section 2 of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974.For part (b), most candidates managed to provide reasonable answers that identified the three standard conditions for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence: firstly, that a duty of care is owed; secondly, that a breach of the duty occurred in that the employer failed to take reasonable care; and, thirdly, that the breach led directly to the loss, damage or injury. An outline was required to show what each means in practice. Some candidates made use of appropriate examples for this purpose. Question 4 The overall response to this question was rather poor. It was clear that a number of candidates considered the word `reporting' solely in relation to the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases an d Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 1995. Others appeared to miss the reference to training and simply outlined suitable internal reporting procedures.Whilst such procedures would form part of a training session, the actual procedures did not really form part of an answer to this question. Good answers to this question referred to the need in a training session to explain the importance of reporting accidents and incidents (for legal, investigative and monitoring reasons), the types of incident that the organisation requires to be reported, the lines of reporting, how to complete internal documents and forms, and responsibilities for completing the accident book and for complying with statutory reporting duties. Question 5 This was a straightforward question where little difficulty was anticipated and, reassuringly, little appeared to have been found.Many candidates gained maximum marks by including most, if not all, of the requirements relating to: the suitability of work equipment ; training; maintenance of equipment; conformity with EU requirements; preventing contact with dangerous parts of machinery; protection against specified hazards; protection against high or low temperatures; stop and emergency stop controls; position of controls; safety of control systems; means of isolation; stability; lighting; safety of maintenance operations; and the provision of markings and warnings. Little more than this was required for the list that was asked for. A few answers went further than necessary by giving detail of the requirements, such as the means of protecting against dangerous parts.Despite much of the information being sound, no further marks were available and candidates are once again reminded to take note of the `action verb' in each question. Question 6 The HSE guide to the Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations draws a clear distinction between `informing' and `consulting'. Perhaps from a general understanding of the words, nearly a ll candidates, for part (i), were able to differentiate between the two. Under the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974, employers have a duty to inform employees (ie provide information on hazards, risks and control measures) in order to help to ensure their health and safety.This general duty is echoed in a number of Regulations made under the Act. The Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996, however, require that employers consult their employees on health and safety matters (ie listen to, and take account of, their views) before a decision is taken. The response to part (ii) was mixed, with some candidates seemingly applying a certain amount of guesswork (albeit sometimes quite intuitively) and others showing an obvious familiarity with the requirements of the Regulations. It is worth noting that the matters on which an employer must consult under these Regulations are identical to those in the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1 977.They include: the introduction of any measure at the workplace that may substantially affect employees' health and safety; the arrangements for appointing and/or nominating competent persons; the planning and organisation of health and safety training; the health and safety implications of introducing new technology; and the information that the employer is required to provide under other Regulations, such as that relating to risk assessments, preventive measures and emergency procedures. Hence, employers are obliged not only to provide information but- they must also consult their employees on the appropriateness of the information before it is given. Question 7 Health and safety performance in the workplace can be monitored using a variety of techniques and measures. This question required candidates to distinguish between those that might be described as `reactive' (assessing past failures to control risks) and those that are `proactive' (identifying non-compliance with polic y or procedures before actual harm occurs).Reactive measures include accident and ill health records, civil claims and enforcement actions whereas proactive measures include the results of safety inspections and audits, environmental monitoring records, assessments of health and safety training and the extent to which risk assessments have been completed. The general response to this question was reasonably good although some candidates appeared to confuse the two terms, which resulted in weaker answers. Question 8 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. Examiners were pleased that candidates were able to outline a wide range of issues for this human factors question, which demonstrated a good understanding of this part of the Certificate syllabus.There are many reasons why employees may fail to comply with safety procedures at work and candidates achieving good marks recognised some of them, amongst others, as: unrealistic or ill-considered procedures; mental and/or physical capabilities not taken into account; inadequate training; poor organisational safety culture; complacency/lack of motivation; peer group pressure; other priorities and pressures; risks not perceived; slips and lapses; fatigue and stress; and perceived lack of consultation. Question 9 Despite previous Examiners' Reports drawing attention to the general lack of understanding of, and confusion between, the two types of occupational exposure limit (OEL), many candidates were again struggling to provide adequate answers to part (a) of this question.As a starting point, tutors should ensure that candidates are aware that OELs refer to airborne concentrations of particular substances and thus are primarily concerned with the prevention of ill-health effects by inhalation. Following this, there needs to be an understanding that a harmful substance is assigned an OES when current evidence indicates that there is no harmful effect at this level, and that average airborne conc entrations at or below the standard are considered acceptable. An MEL, however, is assigned to a substance when there are difficulties, either technical or due to lack of evidence, in establishing a level that is considered `safe'. For this reason, airborne concentrations of substances with an MEL must be as far as reasonably practicable below this maximum limit in order to minimise any ill-health effects.Excursions above an MEL must be explained and immediately controlled. Good answers to part (b) relied to an extent on candidates' explanations of an MEL in the first part, and an understanding of the serious implications of exceeding an MEL. Better responses differentiated between the immediate and longer term actions that may be necessary. Emergency procedures such as evacuation, isolation and venting of the affected area, and curtailing the process producing the contaminant, would be required immediately. Following that, an assessment should be made of the reasons for the breakdo wn in control and improvements (such as more effective ventilation) introduced.At the same time, anyone exposed to high concentrations should be the subject of special health surveillance. Question 10 The development of safe systems is an essential part of the work of those with health and safety responsibilities. It is pleasing to note that many candidates were able to offer clear, concise definitions that showed a good understanding of the term and its implications. A reasonable explanation of the term is, for example, a considered procedure for carrying out a task safely, taking into account the risks and control measures, the equipment needed, the environment, contingent requirements, and the competence and skills required of personnel.Part (b) was also well answered although there was a slight tendency for lists, which received minimal credit. Higher marks were awarded to candidates who explained the conditions that would determine the type of action that an inspector might tak e, and the effects of that action on the organisation. Possible enforcement actions are the issue of an improvement or prohibition notice, and prosecution. Credit was also given for the recognition that an inspector may give verbal or written advice and/or warning before taking more serious action. Question 11 Most candidates seemed to be familiar with the need for first-aid provision in the workplace and the factors that would determine the level of provision required.An assessment of first-aid provision involves looking at the number and level of training of first-ciders, as well as the type and location of first-aid facilities and equipment, in relation to such factors as the number and distribution of employees, the work patterns in operation (eg shiftwork), the workplace activities and risks, and the proximity of emergency services. Some candidates commendably extended their answers by considering other factors such as the special needs of young, disabled or peripatetic employe es. Paper A1 Question 1An inefficient local exhaust ventilation (LEV) system has been identified as the main cause of excessive dust levels in a workplace. (i) Identify FOUR possible indications of a dust problem that may have alerted staff to the inefficiency of the LEV system. (4)- (ii) Outline the factors that may have reduced the effectiveness of the LEV system. (8) iii) Describe control methods other than LEV that might be used to minimise levels of airborne dust. (8) This question was designed to assess candidates' breadth of knowledge of the problem of dust in the workplace. In answering part (i), most candidates were able to identify at least three indications of a dust problem in a workplace, such as deposits of dust on people and surfaces, particles visible in the air and complaints of discomfort and irritation by the employees. Only a few referred to the results of air monitoring or actual ill-health effects. For part (ii), most candidates were able to outline at least a reasonable range of factors.Better candidates addressed both underlying factors, such as poor design and a lack of maintenance and/or periodic testing, and the more immediate factors, such as the hood being placed too far from the source of the emission, damaged or blocked ducting or filters, unauthorised alteration to the system, incorrect settings, a faulty fan and possible changes to the process leading to increased dust emissions. In part (iii), candidates were given the opportunity to describe methods of minimising levels of airborne dust that may be needed in addition or as an alternative to local exhaust ventilation. These could have included the cessation of the activity creating the dust, changing the process to educe the amount of dust produced, substituting a dust creating material for another in paste or liquid form, segregating or enclosing the process and damping down the dust to enable it to be removed by vacuum. Many candidates demonstrated a good understanding of th e principles by describing such methods in a hierarchical order, and almost all indicated the importance of using cleaning methods that do not disturb settled dust (ie vacuuming instead of sweeping). Some became a little carried away with the COSHH hierarchy by referring to the use of respiratory protective equipment, which may reduce personal exposures but has no effect on levels of airborne dust.Many candidates also suggested the introduction of dilution ventilation, which is an ineffective method of controlling dust and may even have the effect of distributing it more widely across the workplace. Question 2Outline the possible hazards from using a petrol-driven strimmer to maintain roadside verges. (8) This was not a well answered question, with most candidates able to achieve only a few of the marks available for outlining some of the possible hazards arising from using a petrol-driven strimmer. Such hazards include exposure to fumes, the possibility of fire or explosion, contac t with the moving parts of the strimmer, being struck by flying stones and fragments, noise and vibration, manual handling, slips, trips and falls, the possibility of being struck by moving traffic and exposure to extreme weather conditions.Some candidates decided not to answer the question that was asked and either outlined the possible hazards arising from the use of an electric strimmer or discussed how the risks associated with the use of the equipment might be controlled. Question 3Outline the precautions to protect against electrical contact when: (i)excavating near underground cables(4) (ii)working in the vicinity of overhead power lines. (4) Part (i) of this question was answered slightly more successfully than part (ii), with better candidates referring to isolation of the supply, the identification of cable routes from plans and by the use of cable detectors, checking for service box covers, marking of cable routes on site and digging with hand-tools: rather than with a me chanical excavator. Precautions gainst overhead power lines, for part (ii), include isolation, erection of goal-post barriers to define clearance distances, clear marking of danger zones (for example with signs and bunting), ensuring safe access routes under lines (for instance, with `tunnels'), the appropriate use of marshals and banksmen when there is a possibility that cranes, excavators or tipper lorries might approach overhead lines, and the restricted use of items such as metal ladders and scaffold tubes near live lines. Examiners' were genuinely concerned by some of the precautions against high voltage electricity that were being offered by some candidates, in particular the idea that insulated footwear and tools would afford protection and that residual current . devices might be appropriate in either of the two situations. It was significant that only about half of the candidates mentioned the possibility of isolating the power supply in either part of the question.Some can didates missed the focus of the question and either concentrated on the preparation of a risk assessment or described in detail the operation of a permit-to-work system, neither of which directly affords protection against electrical contact. Question 4 (a) Outline the principles of the following types of machine guard:|| (i) fixed guard|(2)| (ii) interlocked guard. |(2)| (b) Identify TWO advantages and TWO disadvantages of a fixed|| machine guard. |(4)| In answering part (a) of the question, most candidates showed they had at least a basic understanding of the principles of the most common types of guard. The majority correctly identified that a fixed guard is physically attached to the machine and normally requires a special tool to remove it.Fewer, however, specifically mentioned the fact that it provides a physical barrier that has no moving parts and is not linked to the controls, motion or hazardous condition of the machine. Interlocked guards, on the other hand, work on the p rinciple that a machine cannot start or otherwise become dangerous until the guard is closed, and that when the machine is in a dangerous condition either the guard cannot be opened or opening the guard causes the machine to come to rest. Where problems did arise was in the identification of the advantages and disadvantages of a fixed guard. Candidates should have identified that the simplicity of a fixed guard means it is easy to inspect and maintain and the fact that there are no moving parts leads to increased reliability.On the other hand, the fact that it is not linked to the machine controls means that no protection is afforded should it be removed and, since it is fixed and requires a special tool for its removal, access, when required, is more difficult. A physical barrier, particularly if it is solid rather than meshed, may also hamper visual inspection of the machine or the work being performed. Question 5Identify FOUR possible routes of entry of toxic substances into the body and, in EACH case, describe a circumstance in which an employee might be at risk of such exposure. (8) Most candidates successfully identified the routes of entry of toxic substances into the body as inhalation, ingestion, through the skin and by injection.Describing the circumstances in which an employee might be at risk in each case, however, proved a little more difficult. Examiners were looking for examples such as: inhalation due to a build up of fume or vapour, either as part of a process (eg welding) or accidentally (eg spillage); ingestion caused perhaps by poor personal hygiene (eg eating or smoking without first washing the hands); entry through the skin if wounds are not covered or by contact with chemicals (eg solvents) that may be absorbed through the skin; and injection possibly caused by the handling of contaminated sharp objects. Question 6Outline the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when work is carried out on a pitched (sloping) ro of. (8)This question sought to test candidates' knowledge of the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when working on sloping roofs. The majority provided reasonable answers and referred to many of the relevant precautions such as the provision of safe access to the roof- and roof edge protection, the use of crawling boards or roof ladders, identifying and covering roof lights, arrangements for moving tools and materials to and from the roof, the issue and wearing of personal protective equipment such as helmets, footwear and harnesses, the employment of a trained and competent workforce, and the need to stop the work activity during adverse weather conditions.Question 7 (a)Outline SIX factors to be considered when selecting suitable eye protection for use at work. (6) (b)Identify ONE advantage and ONE disadvantage of safety goggles compared with safety spectacles. (2) In answering part (a) of the question, most candidates referred to the need to ensure that the type of protective equipment is appropriate for the particular hazard against which protection is required (eg chemical, impact, ultraviolet light, molten metal). In this context, reference was usually made to the need for the equipment to meet quality and safety standards, in particular that it bears a CE mark. Comfort factors were also generally identified, as was compatibility with other equipment, including prescription spectacles.Other relevant factors to be considered include durability, cost, and maintenance and training requirements. Candidates generally gained full marks for their answers to part (b) since there are several advantages and disadvantages of goggles from which only one of each was required. Advantages include the fact that goggles provide all round protection, particularly against projectiles and chemicals, and tend not to be easily displaced. Disadvantages include the increased tendency of goggles to mist up, the generally higher cost involved and the fa ct that they may be more uncomfortable than spectacles. Question 8Outline the possible risks to health and safety associated with laying paving slabs in a busy high street. (8)Examiners were looking to candidates to outline such risks as: trapped fingers, foot injuries and musculoskeletal problems from handling slabs; the possibility of being struck by traffic; injuries from the use of cutting discs (eg contact with the disc and being struck by flying particles); the effects of exposure to noise, vibration, dust and wet cement; and the increased likelihood of tripping. Even though candidates might not have had personal experience of the activity described, it was nevertheless one that could be visualised quite easily in order to identify a good range of possible risks. A few candidates, however, again seemed not to have read the question carefully enough and concentrated on the control measures, for which no marks could be awarded.Question 9Outline the measures that should be taken to minimise the risk of fire from electrical equipment. (8) In answering this question, Examiners expected candidates to outline measures such as the proper selection of equipment to ensure its suitability for the task, pre-use inspection by the user, establishing correct fuse ratings, ensuring circuits and sockets are not overloaded, disconnecting or isolating the equipment when it is not in use, and ensuring that electric motors do not overheat (eg by checking that vents are uncovered). Additional measures include the need to uncoil cables (particularly extension leads) to prevent the build up of heat and protecting cables from mechanical damage.Importantly, electrical equipment and systems should be subject to regular inspection, testing and maintenance by competent persons. This should ensure, for instance, that contacts are sound, thereby reducing the likelihood of electrical arcing. While most candidates were able to outline some of the above measures, surprisingly few offered comprehensive answers. Of those who did identify a sufficient number of measures, some provided answers that were far too brief. For an outline, it was necessary to say something about how each measure reduces the risk of fire. Question 10(a)Identify TWO respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos. 2) (b) Explain where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work. (6) In answering part (a) of this question, many candidates identified a variety of respiratory problems that were either non-specific or are not associated with asbestos. Pneumoconiosis and asthma were frequently given as examples. More knowledgeable candidates referred specifically to asbestosis, mesothelioma or lung cancer. Part (b) was reasonably well answered with most candidates identifying, for instance, pipe lagging, roofing materials, loft and wall insulation, sprayed coatings (for example, in fire-resistant encapsulation of metal girders), and the use of asbestos in ceiling tiles, panels and textured finishes.Fewer mentioned the possibility of gaskets, packing and plugs made of asbestos-containing materials. Question 11List EIGHT non-mechanical hazards associated with machinery. (8) This was intended to be a straightforward question that should have been answered quickly as well as giving the candidates an opportunity to gain valuable marks. The list should have included such hazards as electricity, noise, vibration, radiation, extremes of temperature, fire and explosion, hazardous substances (both by direct contact with, for instance, oils and greases and by exposure to dust and fumes) and those related to insufficient attention to ergonomic issues.Some candidates included in their list, or even concentrated on exclusively, various mechanical hazards, for which no marks could be given. This suggests that they had either misread the question or did not fully appreciate the distinction between mechanical and non-mechanical machinery hazards. Paper A2, Question 1A newly established company is to refurbish existing office accommodation before recruiting staff. Outline: (i)the welfare facilities that should be considered when planning the refurbishment(8) (ii)the main issues to be addressed in a general health and safety, induction programme(6) for the new staff (iii)the procedures that might be needed in order to ensure the health and safety of visitors to the premises during working hours(6)This question was generally answered quite well, probably because it was concerned with issues that were relatively straightforward and ones with which many candidates would have already been familiar. In answering part (i), candidates should have referred to the provision of sanitary conveniences, washing facilities, drinking water, eating and rest areas away from the work area, accommodation for clothing not worn at work and rest facilities for expectant and nursing mothers. Some candidates appeared not to notice that the work situa tion described was office-based and answered the question as though more dangerous activities were involved. Few offices, for instance, would be required to have locker rooms, or shower and changing facilities.In addition, a few candidates took a wider remit than was required by the question by referring to general welfare issues (eg heating, ventilation and other factors affecting comfort) rather than concentrating on the actual facilities for employee welfare. For part (ii), Examiners were looking for answers that referred to issues such as the company health and safety policy, emergency procedures, specific risks associated with the working environment, procedures for reporting incidents, first-aid arrangements, information on welfare facilities, consultation procedures and the responsibilities of employees. This part of the question seemed to cause some candidates surprising difficulty with a few able to refer to little more than fire and other emergency issues and accident repo rting.Any candidate who had visited a well-managed workplace should have had little difficulty in answering part (iii) by outlining procedures such as the initial reception process involving the registration of personal details and the issue of identification badges, the provision of information on site rules (including emergency procedures) and information on the hazards and risks within the establishment that might affect the visitor. Better candidates suggested that visitors should be supervised, and possibly escorted, at all times by a member of staff. Common to each of the three parts of the question was a requirement to provide an outline of the issues identified.It was insufficient in part (i), for instance, simply to specify ‘sanitary conveniences' without mentioning that they should be adequate in number in relation to the number of employees, separate for men and women, and well lit and ventilated. Question 2Inadequate lighting in the workplace may affect the level o f stress amongst employees. Outline EIGHT other factors associated with the physical environment that may increase, stress at work. This question required candidates to outline factors associated with the physical working environment that might increase levels of stress at work. Answers should have referred to factors such as cramped, dirty or untidy working onditions, workplace layout resulting in a lack of privacy or security, problems with glare, extremes of temperature and/or humidity, inadequate ventilation resulting in stale air (or conversely, draughty conditions), exposure to noise and vibration, inadequate welfare facilities and, for those working outside, inclement weather conditions. Despite the clear signposting, many candidates referred to psychological (eg bullying) and organisational (eg work pressures) stressors instead of restricting their answers to the physical environment as required. Question 3Explain, using an example in EACH case, the meaning of the following terms: (i) `hazard'|(2)| (ii) `risk'|(3)| (iii) `so far as is reasonably practicable'. |(3)| Examiners were disappointed, and a little surprised, to find that a significant number of candidates struggled to provide explanations of such fundamental health and safety terms.Additionally, in the case of those who did give reasonable explanations, they either then did not give examples or used inappropriate examples that suggested a lack of understanding of what had gone before. This was particularly so in relation to the term `hazard'. As far as ‘risk' was concerned, a number of candidates referred to the probability or likelihood of harm but did not expand their explanation to include the likely consequence in terms of the severity of such harm. In attempting to explain `so far is as reasonably practicable', most candidates inferred that this involves balancing risk against cost but fewer were able to go much further in explaining what this means in practical terms.Question 4In r elation to the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1977, outline: (i) the functions of a trade-union appointed safety representative|(6)| (ii) the facilities that an employer may need to provide to safety || representatives. | (2)| || In answering part (i) of the question, candidates were expected to outline functions such as examining the causes of accidents, investigating complaints from employees, carrying out safety inspections, making representation to the employer, attending safety committee meetings, and representing employees in consultation with the enforcing authority and receiving information from its inspectors. There were some good answers to this part of the question where candidates were able to show their knowledge of the relevant part of the Regulations.Unfortunately, these were balanced by some very poor attempts from those who did not possess such knowledge. For part (ii), reference should have been made to the provision of facilities such as a private room in circumstances when this is necessary and access to a telephone, fax machine, photocopier and relevant reference material. Some candidates did not seem to appreciate the meaning of the word `facilities' and outlined instead the rights of safety representatives, such as those relating to training and the allocation of sufficient time to carry out their duties. Question 5 (a)Identify TWO situations where a permit-to-work system might be || considered appropriate. |(2)| b) Outline the key elements of a permit-to-work system. |(6)| For part (a), most candidates were able to identify two situations where a permit-to-work system might be considered appropriate choosing from work in confined spaces, work in flammable atmospheres, work on electrical equipment, hot work, and maintenance work on dangerous process plant or production machinery. Part (b) of the question was not so well answered and relatively few candidates were able to outline all the elements of a permit syst em, the first of which would be a description and assessment of the task to be performed (including the plant involved and the possible hazards).This will determine the need for, and nature of, other key elements – namely, the isolation of sources of energy and inlets, the additional precautions required (eg atmospheric monitoring, PPE, emergency equipment) and the duration of the permit. An essential element of a permit-to-work system is, of course, the operation of the permit itself. By means of signatures, the permit should be issued by an authorised person and accepted by the competent person responsible for the work. On completion of the work, the competent person would need to indicate on the permit that the area had been made safe in order for the permit to be cancelled by the authorised person, after which the isolations could be removed. Question 6Outline the actors that may indicate a need for health surveillance of employees in a workplace. (8) This question appear ed to cause problems for many candidates, some of whom identified particular situations where health surveillance would be appropriate rather than outlining the factors that might indicate a need for it. In answering, candidates could have chosen from a variety of factors such as ill-health and absence records, first-aid treatments, complaints from employees, the findings of risk assessments, the results of inspections or monitoring activities, changes in methods of work and the relevant requirements of current legislation and approved codes of practice.Question 7Outline FOUR advantages and FOUR disadvantages of using propaganda posters to communicate health and safety information to the workforce. (8) Posters are a commonly used medium for passing on health and safety messages to the workforce and many candidates will have used them or seen them in use. The question was generally well answered although some found more difficulty in outlining the disadvantages as opposed to the adva ntages. Advantages of posters include their relatively low cost, their flexibility, their brevity, their use in reinforcing verbal instructions or information and in providing a constant reminder of the importance of health and safety, and the potential to involve employees in their selection and hence in the message being conveyed.Disadvantages include the need to change posters on a regular basis if they are to be noticed, the fact that they may become soiled, defaced and out-of-date, and the possibility that they might appear to trivialise serious matters. There may also be an over-reliance on posters to convey health and safety information and they may be perceived by unscrupulous employers as an easy, if not particularly effective, way of discharging their health and safety obligations by shifting the responsibility onto the workforce for any accidents that may occur. Question 8 (a) Identify FOUR factors relating to the individual that might increase the risk of accidents at wo rk. (4) (b) Give reasons why maintenance operations may pose particular risks to those undertaking them. 4) This question produced a mixed response from candidates. In answering part (a), many could identify only one or two factors, most commonly the strongly linked psychological factors of attitude and motivation. Only better candidates identified additional factors such as age, lack of skill or experience, lack of familiarity (or possibly overfamiliarity) with the workplace, high stress levels, and health problems, medical conditions or physical disability/incapacity (including that brought about by alcohol or drugs). Similarly, for part (b) there were few candidates who were able to identify a range of relevant reasons for maintenance activities posing special risks.Such reasons may include the existence of new or different hazards, the lack of familiarity or experience with the tasks or equipment involved, the likelihood that the events leading to the need for maintenance and th eir contingent hazards would be unpredictable, the possibility that the maintenance operations would have to be carried out in confined spaces or other poor work environments, and the inevitable pressure on maintenance staff to complete the work in as short a time as possible in order to return to normal production. Question 9Explain the difference between HSC Approved Codes of Practice and HSE guidance, giving an example of EACH. (8) Relatively few candidates performed well on this question. Most found it difficult to explain the essential differences between the two types of document and, when examples were given, they were often vague or incorrect. Approved Codes of Practice are approved by the Health and Safety Commission with the consent of the Secretary of State and provide a recognised interpretation of how an employer may comply with relevant legislation.Although failure to comply with the provision of an ACOP is not in itself an offence, the failure may be cited in court in criminal proceedings as proof that there has been a contravention of the legislation to which the provision relates. Employees must either meet the standards contained in the ACOP or show that they have complied with an equal or better standard. A number of examples could have been cited such as the ACOPs complementing the Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992 and the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999. Guidance, on the other hand, is issued by the Health and Safety Executive with the intention of giving advice on good practice. The advice is generally more practically based than that contained in an ACOP. Guidance has no legal standing in a court of law.Examples of HSE guidance documents include those issued on matters such as manual handling, display screen equipment and personal protective equipment. Question 10(a)In relation to risk assessments carried out under the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999, explain the mea ning of the term `suitable and sufficient'. (3) (b)Outline the changes in circumstances that may require a risk assessment to be reviewed. (5) Examiners found that part (a) of this question elicited a generally poor response and few candidates were able to give an adequate explanation of the term `suitable and sufficient' in relation to risk assessment.Such an assessment should identify all significant hazards and risks, enable priorities to be set, allow the identification of the protective measures required, be appropriate to the nature of the work and be valid over a reasonable period of time. Part (b), in contrast, tended to attract some better answers, with candidates able to outline such circumstances as changes in process, work method or materials (type or quantity), the introduction of new plant or technology, new information becoming available, a change in legislation, changes in personnel (eg the employment of young or disabled persons), and when the results of monitoring (accidents, ill-health and environmental) are not as expected. Question 11Identify EIGHT measures that can be used to monitor an organisation's, health and safety performance. 8) There are various indicators that an organisation can use to assess different aspects of its health and safety performance and Examiners were looking for answers containing a mixture of both proactive and reactive measures. Reactive performance measures include accident and ill-health statistics, incidents of reported near-misses and dangerous occurrences, actions taken by the enforcement authorities and insurance claims. Proactive measures, on the other hand, might include the results of inspections and/or environmental monitoring, safety audit outcomes and the results of medical/health surveillance. Some candidates restricted their answers to the identification of monitoring methods (such as safety nspections, tours and sampling) rather than the measures that are derived from them and which can be compare d over time. This sometimes limited the number of marks that could be awarded. THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A1: IDENTIFYING AND CONTROLLING HAZARDS JUNE 1999 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed: 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it. The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. | 1|(a)|List THREE types of crane used for lifting operations. |(3)| |(b)|Outline factors to be considered when assessing the suitability of a mobile crane for a lifting operation. (7)| |(c)|Outline a procedure for the safe lifting and lowering of a load by use of a mobile crane, having ensured that the crane has been correctly selected and positioned for the job. |(10)| |||| Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. | 2||In relation to occupational dermatitis:|| |(i)|identify TWO common causative agents|(2)| |(ii)|describe the typical symptoms of the condition |(3)| |(iii)|state the sources of information that may help to identify dermatitic substances in the workplace. |(3)| |||| 3||A pneumatic drill is to be used during extensive repair work to the floor of a busy warehouse. | |(i)|Identify by means of a labelled sketch, THREE possible transmission paths the noise from the drill could take. |(3)| |(ii)|Outline appropriate control measures to reduce the noise exposures of the operator AND the warehouse staff. |(5)| |||| 4||State the health and safety risks associated with welding operations. |(8)| |||| 5|(a)|Outline the effects on the human body from a severe electric shock. |(4)| |(b)|Describe how earthing can reduce the risk of receiving an electric shock. |(4)| |||| 6||Identify FOUR different types of hazard that may necessitate the us e of special footwear, explaining in EACH case how the footwear affords protection. |(8)| |||| ||The exterior paintwork of a row of shops in a busy high street is due to be repainted. Identify the hazards associated with the work and outline the corresponding precautions to be taken. |(8)| |||| 8|(a)|Identify TWO types of non-ionising radiation, giving an occupational source of EACH. |(4)| |(b)|Outline the health effects associated with exposure to non-ionising radiation. |(4)| |||| 9||Explain the methods of heat transfer that cause the spread of fire. |(8)| |||| 10|(a)|List TWO types of injury that may be caused by the incorrect manual handling of loads. |(2)| |(b)|Outline a good manual handling technique that could be adopted by a person required to lift a load from the ground. |(6)| |||| 1||List EIGHT safe practices to be followed when using a skip for the collection and removal of waste from a construction site. |(8)| NEBOSH Certificate – June 1999 Paper A1 – Ident ifying and Controlling Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiner’s Report Section 1 Question 1 This question was designed to test candidates' knowledge on the use and operation of cranes. Part (a) required candidates to identify three types of crane and it was envisaged that this would cause little difficulty, particularly